In this installment of back to the basics, we will be discussing the third test in the psychological test series, namely Situation Reaction Test (SRT). As an officer in the Armed Forces is required to take decisions at the spur of the moment, it is important to check that how he would react to certain intricate and byzantine situations.
WHAT IS SRT – Situation Reaction Test?
The Situation Reaction Test is largely a test of common sense. In everyday life one comes across certain unforeseen situations and is called upon to resolve them or find a solution for them and to act in an appropriate manner. Hence, a set of 60 incomplete situations are given to the candidates in the form of a test booklet. The candidate gets 30 minutes to complete the set of 60 incomplete situations. It means you get 30 seconds for each situation. In Situation Reaction Test you have to fight against time to complete the test.
Situation Reaction Test SAMPLE SITUATIONS
While traveling by train from Dehradun to Delhi, you discover at Haridwar station that your wallet is lost. You………
Your school is playing a football match against another school. Two minutes before the match is to start, it is found that two members of the school team are missing. You……
You have not fared well in the written test for admission to the NDA. Your father advises you to give up the idea and do something else. You…….
Considering food shortage as the greatest problem of our country. According to you the best course for our government to meet the situation is….
While seeing a film in a cinema house, you hear a shout of ‘fire’ in a corner. You……..
Situation Reaction Test KEY POINTS TO REMEMBER
It is a test of your common sense.
There are common situations pertaining to everyday life.
Your responses should be practical and must be solvable by a Normal Human Being.
It is advised that you practice a set of SRTs (15-20) questions daily keeping the time limit in mind.
If you cannot think of a response to a situation, it is better to let it go.
Usually, the first response that comes to your mind is the best one.
It is a wrap in this article. I hope that the points discussed here have been thoroughly grasped. Reviews and views are always welcome in the comment box below. Keep visiting SSBCRACK. JAI HIND
Indian Army’s official website has published the cutoff marks for TGC 135 Technical Graduate Course – 135 Cut Off Marks. Engineering Defence aspirants who have applied for TGC 135 can check the cut off for their respective branches. Only candidates who have cleared the TGC 135 cut off will be called for the TGC 135 SSB Interview. TGC 135 Vacancies and Cut off – Technical Graduate Course 2022. Applications are invited from unmarried Male Engineering Graduates for 135th Technical Graduates Course (commencing in July 2022 at Indian Military Academy (IMA), Dehradun) for permanent commission in the Indian Army.
TGC 135 Cut Off Marks
As always, Mechanical has the highest cut off marks i.e. 82%
Lowest cut off for many branches is 60%
Total notified TGC 135 vacancies are 40.
TGC 135 Cut Off Marks
Engineering Stream
Cutoff Percentage
Civil/ Building Construction Technology
75
Architecture
60
Mechanical
82
Electrical/ Electrical & Electronics
79
Computer Science/ Computer Technology/ M Sc. Computer Science
Indian army will open the online registration for the NCC 52 special entry scheme from 15 Mar 2022 to 13 April 2022. Candidates with NCC C certificate can apply for the NCC 52 course which is going to commence at OTA Chennai in Oct 2022. Defence aspirants with NCC C Certificate can apply for the latest NCC C Certificate Special Entry to join Indian Army as an officer. NCC Special Entry is a short service commission entry for the NCC Cadets through which male and female NCC Cadets can join the Officers Training Academy Chennai. Indian army has published the NCC special entry 2022 for NCC 52 recruitment. Defence aspirants with an NCC C certificate can apply for this entry. Applications are invited from unmarried male and unmarried female (including Wards of Battle Casualties of Army Personnel), for grant of Short Service Commission in the Indian Army.
NCC 52 Entry Eligibility
Nationality. A candidate must either be: (i) A citizen of India, or (ii) A subject of Bhutan, or (iii) A subject of Nepal, or (iv) A Tibetan refugee who came over to India before the 1st of January 1962 with the intention of permanently settling in India or (v) A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii), (iii), (iv) and (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. A certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.
Age Limit: For National Cadet Corps (NCC) candidates (including wards of Battle Casualties) 19 to 25 years as on 01 Jul 2022 (born not earlier than 02 Jul 1997 and not later than 01 Jul 2003; both dates inclusive).
Candidates should note that the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will only be accepted and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
IMPORTANT NOTE. Candidates must note that they can appear for ONLY one of the Services Selection Board (SSB) interview, either SSC (NT)-116 Course (Oct 2022) /SSC (NT) (Women)-30 Course (Oct 2022) as CDSE candidate OR NCC (Spl) Entry-52 Course (Oct 2022). Candidates are required to give an undertaking to this effect under the declaration part of the online application.
Educational Qualification. Degree of a recognized University or equivalent with aggregate of minimum 50% marks taking into account marks of all the years. Those studying in final year are also allowed to apply provided they have secured minimum 50% aggregate marks in the first two/three years of three/four years degree course respectively. Such students will need to secure overall aggregate of minimum 50% marks in degree course if selected in interview, failing which their candidature will be CANCELLED.
Service in NCC. Should have served for minimum two/three years (as applicable) in Senior Division/Wg of NCC.
Note 1. For the Qualified Graduate Candidates of the Degree Course. Candidates who have passed the graduation degree course must produce the provisional/degree certificate by 1st Oct 2022 to the Directorate General of Recruiting, failing which their candidature will be cancelled. Note 2. For the Candidates Studying in the Final Year of Degree Course. The candidates studying in the final year of graduation, if not already in possession of provisional /degree certificate must submit the proof of their passing the graduation degree Exam by 1st Oct 2022 to the Directorate General of Recruiting, failing which their candidature will be cancelled. Those who are not able to produce the degree certificate/provisional degree certificate by the specified date will be inducted on Additional Bond Basis only on submission of proof of their passing graduation degree exam to the Directorate General of Recruiting by the above specified date.
Vacancies:
NCC MEN. around 50 (45 for General Category and 05 for Wards of Battle Casualties of Army personnel only).
NCC Women. around 05 (04 for General Category and 01 for Wards of Battle Casualties of Army personnel only).
For Wards of Battle Casualties of Army Personnel (aa) Eligibility Criteria. The vacancies under wards of battle casualties are available to wards (unmarried sons and unmarried daughters including legally adopted) of Battle casualties specified as:- (aaa) Killed in action. (aab) Died of wound or injuries (Other than self-inflicted). (aac) Wounded or Injured (Other than self-inflicted). (aad) Missing. (ab) Educational Qualification. Degree of a recognized University or equivalent with aggregate of minimum 50% marks taking into account marks of all the years. (ac) NCC ‘C’ certificate NOT required for Wards of Battle Casualties. (ad) Details of Documents to be provided in the Application Form (aaa) The ‘Battle Casualty’ certificate No. issued by Manpower (Policy & Planning) Directorate (MP Dte) certifying that the parent has been killed/wounded/reported missing in action. (aab) A copy of MP Dte / Respective Regimental Records Part II Order No. notifying injuries and being classified as ‘Battle Casualty’. (aac) Relationship Certificate No. issued by MP 5 & 6 / Respective Regimental Records.
How to Apply : Applications will only be accepted online on website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. Click on ‘Officer Entry Appln/Login’ and then click ‘Registration’ (Registrations not required, if already registered on www.joinindianarmy.nic.in). Fill the online registration form after reading the instructions carefully. After getting registered, click on ‘Apply Online’ under Dashboard. A page ‘Officers Selection – ‘Eligibility’ will open. Then click ‘Apply’ shown against Short Service Commission NCC Special Entry Course. A page ‘Application Form’ will open. Read the instructions carefully and click ‘Continue’ to fill details as required under various segments. Personal information, Communication details, Education details and details of previous SSB. ‘Save & Continue’ each time before you go to the next segment. After filling details on the last segment, you will move to a page ‘Summary of your information’ wherein you can check and edit the entries already made. Only after ascertaining the correctness of all your details, click on ‘Submit Now’. Candidates must click on ‘Submit Now’ each time they open the application for editing any details. The candidates are required to take out two copies of their application having Roll Number, 30 minutes after final closure of online application on last day.
Jai Hind future warriors, today we are going to look at some of the training institutes of the Indian Air Force.
1. Air Force Academy
Air Force Academy (AFA), the premier Training centre of the Indian Air Force, is the cradle of training for pilots, ground duty and technical officers of IAF. This academy represents the culmination and fruition of a long felt need to have training for officers of all branches in a single institution.
The Air Force Academy formally came into being when the then President of India Dr Zakir Hussain, laid the foundation stone of the edifice on 11 October 1967. The Academy was a vision that sought to concentrate most of the ab-initio officer training of the IAF under one roof.
The training at this academy is designed to foster the spirit of camaraderie and promote healthy interaction among officers of every branch. The academy aims to cultivate honour and integrity in every cadet and strives to graduate Air Warriors worthy of the Indian Air Force.
The mission of AFA is to inspire and transform outstanding young men and women into courageous, dynamic, intellectual and cultured young Air Warriors; motivated to lead one of the leading aerospace forces of the world in service to the nation
The training at the Air Force Academy is designed to inculcate moral values, leadership qualities, sense of honour and duty, mental and physical prowess, a spirit of adventure and the will to win, in the Flight Cadets. This is achieved by training in character building, discipline, military and academic subjects, physical exercise, drill, sports and adventure activities. The underlying theme of activity at the Academy is camaraderie and team spirit and a commitment to excellence. Duty, honour, integrity and self esteem are stressed upon during each stage of training; because these are important abstract qualities to be imbibed by every Flight Cadet. The curriculum and syllabi keep pace with current doctrines and technological developments, allowing the cadets at the same time to imbibe the basic principles / tenets of the military profession.
The College of Air Warfare (CAW) came into being on 01 July 1959, as the School of Land and Air Warfare (SLAW), at New Delhi, after receiving its approval by the President of India (Est. No. 2164 A). The SLAW was formally inaugurated by Defence minister, Sri VK Krishna Menon on 03 September 1959 with the commencement of its first regular course.
Mission:
To evolve the process of learning of air war and promote co-operation in conduct of air operations that leads to effective and efficient utilisation of air power strategy.
Role:
To assist in development of Air Force doctrines, concepts and strategy.
To study and teach ‘Air Power’ and conduct training in concepts of Air Warfare.
To conduct training in Joint Air Operations for officers of Army, Navy and Air Force.
To conduct computer aided War-Games of the Air War.
To establish and maintain liaison with similar organisations in the other countries.
To impart training to junior and middle level officers of the Indian Air Force in leadership and behavioural sciences, so as to improve their qualities of leadership and man management.
To research, compile and publish books on IAF Personalities, Institutions, Campaigns and Squadrons
3. Air Force Technical College (AFTC)
Air Force Technical College (AFTC) was established on 04 Jul 1949, in collaboration with Air Service Training Corps, Hamble, UK, with Gp Capt J Beaumont DFC as the first Commandant. The College was then named “Technical Training College” (TTC). The first Direct Entry Officers (DEO) Course comprising of 34 students graduated from TTC on 22 Jan 51, after 66 weeks of training. During the initial years (1949-1962), in addition to courses for Direct entry officers (DEO), the apprentice training was also being conducted at AFTC. TTC was renamed as AFTC on 01 January 1957, with Gp Capt MJ Kriplani MBE as the first Indian Commandant of the College.
The crest of the College depicts a mechanical gear and emanating electrical waves superimposed by torch bearing an eternal flame. The President of India approved the crest on 08 Aug 62. The crest symbolises the flame of knowledge, which gives rise to the fraternity of mechanical and electronics professionals engaged in pursuit of excellence in aeronautical engineering. The motto printed on the crest ‘Gyanen Shobhamahe’ means ‘it is knowledge through which we find pride in ourselves’. With its multi-faceted growth, the College has lived up to its motto and continues to impart high standards of training to military Aeronautical Engineers. The College was awarded the “Presidential Colors’ ‘ by Smt Pratibha Patil, the President of India on 12 Nov 08
The aim of the College is “To educate and train engineers from various disciplines on current technologies of aircraft, weapon and support systems held in the IAF and also to instil qualities of military leadership, managerial skills, values and ethos of an Air Warrior, to enable them to function effectively as Aeronautical Engineers and development as members of officer cadre of IAF”. The directing staff at College are specialists in their respective fields and most of them are Ph D/ M Tech/ M Sc from IITs, IISc, DIAT and other reputed institutes. Today, the college is a Category-A Training Establishment and awards M Tech in Aeronautical Engineering to officers graduating after ab-initio training.
The aim of the College is to impart advanced training to the officers in various branches of the IAF and perfect their knowledge & skill so as to enable them to handle their duties independently in their respective branches.
The officers graduating from this college proudly carry the lessons of success, positive bearing and confidence endowed in them. So far about more than a lakh Indian officers have been trained in this College. Apart from training the IAF officers, this college is also engaged in the training of officers from other defence services and foreign nationals of friendly countries drawn from Myanmar (erstwhile Burma), Indonesia, UAE, Qatar and Sri Lanka. So far, more than 12,000 foreign officers from these countries have been trained at his college.
The College has won laurels and applause from all quarters. The President of India, Sri KR Narayanan presented the Colours in October 2000.
5. Flying Instructor’s School
The crest of Flying Instructors’ School depicts a torch with an open fist, signifying knowledge imparted and passed on by a flying instructor, and a clenched fist held upright, depicting an under trainee receiving the same. The wings depict aviation.
The motto is ‘VIDYA DANEN VARDHATE ” which signifies that ‘Knowledge when imparted multiplies’. This has been taken from Kautilya’s ‘ARTHASATRA’, the oldest book of Sanskrit literature.
This is the guiding principle of the teaching learning process at the Flying Instructors’ School.
FIS is tasked to impart quality training to experienced pilots and mould them into dedicated and extremely skilled flying instructors.
At FIS, the flying skills and professional knowledge of these U/T QFIs are honed to enable them to undertake the arduous task of imparting flying training more effectively and efficiently.
The QFIs who successfully graduate from FIS are entrusted with the responsibility of training ab-initio pilots at flying training establishments and moulding them into future Air Warriors. Subsequently at the operational units, these specialists would impart training to aircrew in various roles that the unit is entrusted to perform.
It is to the credit of the School and its staff, past and present, that it has also successfully integrated the training of officers from the sister services and friendly foreign nations.
6. The Institute of Aerospace Medicine
The Institute of Aerospace Medicine established the Internal Quality Assurance Cell (IQAC) in March 2011. The IQAC has since been an integral part of the Institute which works towards realizing the goals of quality enhancement by developing a system for conscious, consistent and catalytic improvement in different aspects of the functioning of the Institute. The following are the functions of the IQAC:-
Development and application of quality benchmarks/ parameters for various academic and administrative activities of the institution.
Facilitating the creation of a learner-centric environment conducive to quality education and faculty maturation to adopt the required knowledge and technology for participatory teaching and learning process.
Arrangement for feedback response from students on quality-related institutional processes.
Documentation of the various programmes/ activities leading to quality improvement.
Acting as a nodal agency of the Institution for coordinating quality-related activities, including adoption and dissemination of best practices.
Development of Quality Culture in the institution.
Preparation of the Annual Quality Assurance Report (AQAR) as per guidelines and parameters of NAAC, to be submitted to NAAC.
IQAC happens to be one of the important components of the college which ensures quality and continuous improvement in all the units/ aspects of the college.
7. Airmen Training School
A Non-Technical Training Centre for airmen recruits was set up at Lahore in 1943 and then shifted to Hyderabad in the same year. It was renamed as No.1 Ground Training School. The school was shifted to Jalahalli in 1947 . The airfield camp at Sambra, Belagavi was initially set up by the Royal Air Force in 1942. After Independence, the camp and other assets were taken over by the Central Public Works Department. When No 1 Ground Training School (GTS) was relocated from Jalahali, Bangalore to Sambra Belgaum in 1962, the assets of the camp were transferred to the IAF. No 1 Ground Training School (GTS) . In 1980, it was renamed as Administrative Training Institute (ATI).
ATI was shifted to Air Force Station Tambaram in November 2001 and renamed as Airmen Training School (ATS) on 05 Dec 01, purely dedicated for Joint Basic Phase Training of all ab-initio trainees of the Air Force. Thereafter with effect from 20 Oct 2004, ATS was numbered as 405 Air Force Station, Belagavi.
Like technical trades, the training of non-technical trades were restructured in 2000 and 2004. The non-technical training institutions were reorganized in 2005. Presently, the different institutions which conduct training of airmen of non-technical trades are the Basic Training Institute, Non-Technical Training Institute, Air Force School of Physical Fitness, Air Force Police & Security Training Institute and Medical Training Centre.
Conclusion
Hope this post was informative for you. For more such posts related to defence exams and SSB Interview stay tuned.
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Hello Everyone, I am Mehul Gupta, 25, have done M.Tech in civil engineering from Gautam Buddha University, Gr.Noida. I have got recommended from 1AFSB, Dehradun on the historic date of 26th November 2021. It was my 5th attempt, I got screened out in all my previous 4 attempts and this was my last attempt at AFSB.
From my previous failed attempts, I realized that I need to work upon my increasing my accuracy at OIR tests, for which the practice sets provided by SSBCrack OIR have helped me immensely, along with that, as it was my last chance, I decided to take guidance from a coaching institute, which showed me the right direction when it comes to attempting psych tests, PI and GTO.
I reported at 1 AFSB, Dehradun on 22nd November 2021. A total of 200 people were reported at the center. Initially, we were given our breakfast then the OIR tests were conducted. I performed really well in the OIR tests and PPDT. Coming to the discussion part, I was the only screened out competing with the repeaters. I was unsure about the GD part. I delivered my best in the narration and contributed to the GD. As a result 55 of us got screened in out of 200. Same-day in the evening, psychology tests were conducted. It went smoothly. I attempted all the TATs, WATs, and 58 SRTs.
From day 2 onwards, GTO and PI were conducted. In GTO, I feel the most important factors were group behaviour, general knowledge, and Fitness. I believe I was able to deliver my best at those tests. Coming to the PI, I feel this was the most fun experience I had in my life when it comes to facing an interview. It was very jolly, I was able to keep things light and use humour to my advantage (liveliness factor counts, don’t get subdued under pressure) My conference was short and crisp, lasted for a minute only.
Finally, the results were announced and 4 of us made it. It was an emotional moment for me. I took a break from my professional life just to make this opportunity count.
To join the Indian Army, Navy, and Air Force and Crack the AFSB, NSB & SSB Interview, You can join our SSB interview live classes batch and we recommend you to Enroll in SSB INTERVIEW ONLINE COURSE. Trusted by thousands of defence aspirants.
So I would like to say this to all the defence aspirants, don’t lose hope. Every failure is a stepping stone to your success. Keep improving on your mistakes and never repeat the same. Surely, one day all the weaknesses will turn into your strengths.
Candidates can now download the NDA 1 2022 admit card from the official website of UPSC. NDA Exam Admit cards 202 for (I) exams is available to download now. Candidates who have applied for NDA 1 2022 can download it from the official website i.e. upsc.nic.in. Candidates need to enter either the registration number or roll number to download the NDA admit card successfully.
The Union Public Service Commission will be conducting the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I) 2022 at various Centers/Venues all over India on 10th April 2022 (Sunday). The Commission has uploaded the e-Admit card for the convenience of the admitted candidates on the Commission’s website (https://upsconline.nic.in.). The admitted candidates are advised to download their e-Admit Cards for the Examination and take a printout thereof. The admitted candidates will have to produce the printout of their e-Admit Card at the allotted Venue for appearing in the Examination, along with Photo Identity Card mentioned in the e-Admit Card.
NDA 1 2022 Exam Important Instructions
Check the e-Admit Card carefully and bring discrepancies, if any, to the notice of UPSC immediately.
Mention your Name, Roll Number,Registration ID and Name & Year of the Examination in all the correspondence with UPSC.
Bring this e-Admit card (print out), along with the (original) Photo Identity Card, whose number is mentioned in the e-Admit Card , in each session to secure admission to Examination Hall. E-Admit Card must be preserved till the declaration of the final result as its production before Service Selection Board is necessary.
You are responsible for safe custody of the e-Admit Card and in the event of any other person using this e-Admit Card , the onus lies on you to prove that you have not used the service of any impersonator.
Please note that entry into the Examination Venue shall be closed 10 minutes before the scheduled commencement of the Examination i.e. 9:50 AM for the Forenoon Session and 01:50 PM for the Afternoon Session. No candidate shall be allowed to enter into the Examination Venue after closure of the entry.
Candidates are advised to visit their Examination Venue at least one day in advance and familiarize themselves with the itinerary to avoid the last minute hassle in their own interest. They should reach the Examination Venue on the day of Examination well in time for frisking.
Candidates should note that they shall not be allowed to appear at any other Venue except the Venue mentioned in the e-Admit Card. If a candidate appears at any other venue due to any reason, his candidature shall liable to be cancelled.
Please Read the “Rules/Instructions for the Examination” available in the Examination notice and “Poster containing instructions” displayed outside the Examination Hall.
Your candidature to the examination is provisional.
Candidate should not be in possession of or using any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches, etc., or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the examination. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future Examinations.
Use of normal or simple wrist watches by candidates is allowed inside the Examination Rooms/ Halls. However, use of watches fitted with any special accessory that might be used as communication device or smart watches is strictly prohibited and candidates are not allowed to take such watches into the Examination Rooms/ Halls.
There will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate.
Answers other than those made by Black Ball Point Pen would not be evaluated.
Candidates are advised not to bring any valuables/costly items to the Examination Hall, as safe keeping of the same can not be assured. The Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
Candidates who do not have clear photographs on the e-admit card will have to bring a photo identity proof and two passport size photographs one for each session for appearing at the examination with an undertaking.
Candidates should note that any omission/ mistake/ discrepancy in encoding / filling in details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection.
Wearing of mask/face cover is mandatory for all candidates. Candidates without mask/face cover will not be allowed entry into the Venue.
Candidates, however, will have to remove their masks for verification, whenever required by the Examination functionaries.
Candidate may carry his/her own hand sanitizer (small size) in transparent bottle.
Candidates to follow “COVID-19” norms of ‘social distancing’ as well as ‘personal hygiene’ inside the Examination Halls/Rooms as well as in the premises of the Venue.
UPSC has published the CDS 1 2021 Admit Card on 14th March 2022. The last date to download the CDS 2 2021 admit card and hall ticket is 10th April 2022. The Combined Defence Services Examination CDS 1 2022 is going to be conducted on 10th April 2022 (SUNDAY). Candidates are advised to download the admit card and follow the instructions as mentioned below.
The Union Public Service Commission will be conducting the Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2022 at various Centers/Venues all over India on 10th April 2022 (Sunday). The Commission has uploaded the e-Admit card for the convenience of the admitted candidates on the Commission’s website (https://upsconline.nic.in.). The admitted candidates are advised to download their e-Admit Cards for the Examination and take a printout thereof. The admitted candidates will have to produce the printout of their e-Admit Card at the allotted Venue for appearing in the Examination, along with Photo Identity Card mentioned in the e-Admit Card.
How to download CDS 1 2022 Admit Card:
Visit upsconline.nic.in
Click on Admit Card.
You will see CDS 1 2022 Admit Card link.
Click on the link and enter your roll number or registration number to download the CDS 1 2022 admit card.
Sample CDS 1 2022 Admit Card:
CDS 1 2022 Exam Important Instructions
Check the e-Admit Card carefully and bring discrepancies, if any, to the notice of UPSC immediately.
Mention your Name, Roll Number,Registration ID and Name & Year of the Examination in all the correspondence with UPSC.
Bring this e-Admit card (print out), along with the (original) Photo Identity Card, whose number is mentioned in the e-Admit Card , in each session to secure admission to Examination Hall. E-Admit Card must be preserved till the declaration of the final results as its production before Service Selection Board is necessary.
You are responsible for safe custody of the e-Admit Card and in the event of any other person using this e-Admit Card , the onus lies on you to prove that you have not used the service of any impersonator.
“Candidates should note that any omission / mistake / discrepancy in encoding filling in details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection”.
Enter the Examination Hall at least 30 minutes before the scheduled commencement of the Examination. Entry to the Examination Venue closes 10 minutes prior to the scheduled commencement of the examination in each Session.
Candidate should note that candidate will not be allowed to appear at any other Venue except the Venue mentioned in the e-Admit Card.
Please Read the “Rules for the Examination” available on the upsc website https://www.upsc.gov.in and “Poster” containing instructions displayed outside the Examination Hall.
Your candidature to the examination is provisional.
Mobile Phones, Calculators or any of the IT Gadgets are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any Infringements of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations.
There will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the objective type Question Papers.
Answers other than those made by Black Ball Point Pen would not be evaluated.
Candidates are advised not to bring any valuables/costly items to the Examination Halls, as safe keeping of the same can not be assured. The Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard.
Candidates who do not have clear photographs on the e-admit card will have to bring a photo identity proof viz. Adhar Card, Driving Licence, Passport,Voter I Card etc. and three passport size photographs one for each session for appearing in the examination with an undertaking.
Candidates admitted for the OTA course only but who would appear unauthorizedly in ELe. Maths Paper for CDSE(II), 2021 their Answer Scripts of Ele. Maths Paper will not be Evaluated.
Wearing of mask/face cover is mandatory for all candidates. Candidates without mask/face cover will not be allowed entry into the Venue.
Candidates, however, will have to remove their masks for verification, whenever required by the Examination functionaries.
Candidate may carry his/her own hand sanitizer (small size) in transparent bottle.
Candidates to follow COVID 19 norms of ‘social distancing’ as well as ‘personal hygiene’ inside the Examination Halls/Rooms as well as in the premises of the Venue.
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India is developing a new air-launched version of the BrahMos supersonic cruise missile which would be able to strike at enemy targets at more than 800 kilometers. The missile earlier had the capability of hitting target at around 300 kilometers after being released from a Su-30MKI combat aircraft.
“The range of the BrahMos missile has been increased already and with the advantage of being airborne at high altitudes, the missile can travel a longer distance and can hit targets at 800 kms and beyond,” sources told news agency.
The missile landed in Pakistani territory causing very less damage to the property and equipment there and no damage to lives there. After the incident, India sent a letter to the Pakistani authorities deeply regretting the incident and also issued a statement in this regard.
Pakistan is trying to rake up the issue of the misfiring of the BrahMos and trying to question the safety of India’s missile arsenal at the international level but sources said the BrahMos was just a tactical missile.
India has enhanced the range of the tactical missile recently and it can go beyond 500 kilometers with just an upgrade in its software. The Indian Air Force has equipped around 40 of its Su-30 combat aircraft with the BrahMos cruise missiles which can cause heavy destruction in enemy camps.
The Indian Air Force (IAF) had brought these planes to the northern sector from their home base in Thanjavur during the peak of conflict with China. The IAF also operates a surface to the surface squadron of planes to carry out pin-point attack against enemy vital installations and bases.
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Maj Sankalp Yadav, of Army Aviation Squadron, lost his life in the line of duty, to injuries suffered in the Cheetah Helicopter crash at Gurez, J&K on 11 March 2022. Maj Sankalp Yadav, 29 years old, the co-pilot succumbed to his injuries at 92 Base Hospital. The injured pilot is critical, however stable and is presently in ICU at 92 Base Hospital. Events leading to the crash of the helicopter are being ascertained.
Braveheart, Maj Sankalp Yadav was commissioned in 2015 and was a resident of Jaipur, Rajasthan. He is survived by his father. Nation Salutes the Braveheart Maj Sankalp Yadav for the Supreme Sacrifice in line of duty on ‘Cas Evac’ mission in Gurez Sector. “In a solemn ceremony at BB Cantt, Army commander, Northern Command, Lt Gen Upendra Dwivedi and all ranks paid homage to the gallant soldiers on behalf of the proud nation,” a defence spokesman said.
Also Lance Havildar Rupchand was on a quick reaction team duty when the vehicle he was travelling in met with an accident near Kalaroos in Kupwara, the spokesman said. “The braveheart had fallen out of the vehicle and had rolled down into a valley. Immediate rescue operations were launched and he was evacuated to a military hospital, wherein the braveheart succumbed to his injuries,” the spokesman said.
Lance Havildar Rupchand (34) had joined the Indian Army in 2008. He belonged to Dongar Gaon in Bhandara district of Maharashtra and is survived by wife. “The mortal remains of Maj Sankalp Yadav and Lance Havildar Bhonde Chandrasekhar Rupchand will be taken for last rites to their respective native places, where they would be laid to rest with full military honours. In this hour of grief, the Army stands in solidarity with the bereaved families and remains committed to their dignity and well-being,” the spokesman said.
After AFCAT 1 2022 result is declared many aspirants have cracked the AFCAT exam with flying colors. Now the successful aspirants want to know how to select their AFSB interview and venue. Also, many candidates want to know the best venue for the AFSB interview too.
Indian Air Force has published the AFCAT 1 2022 result on 09 March 2022. The SSB interview dates selection for the AFCAT 1 2022 is open for registration for the selection of AFSB. Successful candidates can select their AFSB date and venue from the official website right now. AFCAT 1 2022 cut off is 157 marks out of 300 and EKT cut off is 18 marks out of 150.
All AFSBs are same in terms of testing, wherever you go, you have to perform. So the best criteria while selecting the AFSB is the distance and date. Select the nearest AFSB and the convenient date to make your journey comfortable.
How to Prepare for the AFSB interview?
First, get a basic knowledge of SSB and AFSB, without having the idea of the syllabus of SSB, you will not be able to perform well. So it is best to understand the different tests that you are going to face at AFSB. You will get plenty of articles on SSBCrack and SSBCrackExams websites.
Check SSB Interview Online Course and Prepare for the SSB/AFSB interview from home. This course covers all basics and advanced content for your AFSB preparation.
Many aspirants who have cleared the AFCAT exam first time want to know the process of AFSB venue and date selection, which is fairly simple, in this article you can find the step-wise process of AFSB interview date and venue selection after clearing the AFCAT exam. This option is only available for the candidates who have cleared the AFCAT exam. Below are the steps to follow.
Visit the official website AFCAT CDAC and from the top menu, select the correct AFCAT cycle option.
Now, enter your AFCAT login ID and password, in case you forget the password, you can reset it.
Once you login, click on the Result and AFSB selection option as seen in this image.
You can see your AFCAT marks and cut off. Below you can find the AFSB Selection process button, click on the button to proceed.
Click on I have understood the process
Now you need to do seat selection, add bank details for TA and download your Call Letter.
The AFSB seat selection for venue and SSB date would look like this.
Once you select the date it will show your AFSB venue and date.
Now, add your bank details for TA.
Check the acceptance and add your bank details.
Now, you can download your AFSB call letter and other documents like COVID-19 undertaking.
Save and take a print out of your AFSB call letter, also follow the instructions mentioned in the call letter.
