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AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys All Sets From 26, 27, 28 August [PDF]

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AFCAT-2-2022-Answer-Keys-26-27-28-August-Fully-Solved-All-Sets-768x432

The Indian Air Force is holding the AFCAT 2 2022 online test all around the nation. Defence candidates who desire to join the Indian Air Force will take the AFCAT test online in two shifts on August 26, 27, and 28 of 2022. Candidates should begin showing up at the exam centre at 7:30 AM for the first shift and 12:30 PM for the second shift, according to the information on the admit card. The answer keys for all of the AFCAT 2 2022 sets based on the memory question-and-answer session are provided in this post.

In this article, we’ll share the answer keys for all of the AFCAT 2 2022 sets based on the question-and-answer discussion shared by SSBCrackexams students and followers that are memory-based.

They must show up at the exact time given so that they can go through the entry procedures (including being patted down) and verification process (biometrics, identification, and checking of admit card, ID proof, photo, signature, etc.) before going into the exam room. The candidates are asked to find the exam center the day before so that they can get there on time the day of the test. No requests to change the place or date of the exam will be taken into account.

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys 26 August 2022 – Shift 1 [Fully Solved] – 12:00 PM [MUST WATCH]

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys 26 August 2022 – Shift 2 [Fully Solved] – 12:00 PM [MUST WATCH]

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys (Fully Solved) – To Be Updated

26th, 27, and 28th August AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys [All Sets]Download Link
AFCAT 2 2022 26 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 26 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 27 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 27 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 28 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 28 August Answer Key Fully Solved Shift – 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated

**NOTE MEMORY-BASED QUESTIONS SHARED BY SSBCRACKEXAMS STUDENTS & FOLLOWERS

Shifts 1 and 2 of the AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys And Solutions will be updated on 26th August 2022.

Soon after the test concludes, SSBCrackExams will update the memory-based shift-2 questions for the AFCAT 2 2022 26th August Answer Keys And Solutions. The AFCAT 2 2022 questions and answer keys are also available to view on our SSBCrackExams App and YouTube page.

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 On 26th August – To Be Updated

Q) ICJ headquarters?
Ans. The Hague: The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).

Q) how many hymns are in rig Veda?
Ans. 1028 hymns: The Rig Veda consists of 1028 hymns, organised into ten books known as maṇḍalas.

Q) What is the Motto of the territorial army?
Ans. Savdhani Va Shoorta (Vigilance and Valour)

Q) Which fighter aircraft is able to carry the Brahmos missiles?
Ans. IAF Sukhoi 30 MK-I: Recently Air Version Of BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile Was Successfully Test Fired From The Supersonic Fighter Aircraft Sukhoi 30 MK-I

Q) Which river flows from Washington DC?
Ans. The Potomac River

Match the following joint military exercises –
Varuna – France
Indra – Russia
Maitree – Thailand
Garud Shakti – Indonesia

Q) Olympic logo from left to right
Ans. Blue, Yellow, Back, Green, Red

Q) Fact Check Module aims to check what?
Ans. Accuracy

Q) The largest ecosystem of the world
Ans- The World Ocean is the largest existing ecosystem on our planet. Covering over 71% of the Earth’s surface, it’s a source of livelihood for over 3 billion people.


Q) Andher nagari chaupat raja
Ans. Writer is भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र

Q) NASA+ESA + Italian space agency probe to Saturn?
Ans. CASSINI: A joint endeavor of NASA, the European Space Agency, or ESA, and the Italian Space Agency, Cassini

Q) 86th Amendment Act came in-
Ans. 12th December 2002

Q) Instrument used to measure Humidity?
Ans. Hygrometer

Match the instruments with the artists –
Ustad Bismillah Khan – Shehnai
Ustad Vilayat Khan – Sitar
Amjad Ali Khan – Sarod
V G Jog – Violin


Q) Gandhiji presided over which Congress session?
Ans. 1924 Belgaum Session


Q) What is the working principle of the hydrogen bomb?
Ans. Nuclear fusion

Q) Where is the headquarter of United News Agency?
Ans. New Delhi

Match the following
52 Amendment Act- Anti Defection
73rd – Panchayati Rajya
61A amendment Act- 21Year – 18 Year Age Vote
86th Amendment Act- RTE

Q. How many earthquake zones there are in India?
Ans- As per the seismic zoning map of the country, the total area is classified into four seismic zones. Based on historical seismic activity, the Bureau of Indian Standards has categorized regions in India into four seismic zones: zones II, III, IV and V. Of these, the most seismically active area is Zone V and the least active is Zone II.

Q) Which district has received Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence in 2021?
Ans. Datia, Madhya Pradesh

Q) Injury : helmet:: flood:?
Ans. Levee

Q) Architect : building :: curator:?
Ans. Museum

Q) Odd one out – Singing, Playing, Writing, Breathing
Ans. Breathing (as it is an involuntary activity)

Q) Odd one out – March, November, August, July
Ans. November (only it has 30 days – rest have 31 days)

Q) Take time by the forelock
Ans. To seize an opportunity

Synonym of PRECARIOUS
Ans. Uncertain, Insecure, Risky


Synonym of PROPONENT
Ans. Advocate, Supporter, Promoter


Antonym of INTRINSIC
Ans. Extrinsic, Acquired


Antonym of COLOSSAL
Ans. Tiny, Small, Insignificant


Idiom – Haul over the coals
Ans. To criticize sharply

Q) Take time by the forelock
Ans. To seize an opportunity

One word substitution –
A divine force that some people believe controls our lives and in a way protects us
(a) Universal (b) Spiritual (c) Providence (d) Metaphysics
Ans. Providence

Fill in the blanks –
You must __________ to the rules.
Ans. adhere

Fill in the blanks –
An honest person lives by _______________.
Ans. the sweat of one’s brows

Fill in the blanks –
A light breeze _________ the forest fire and made it more dangerous.
Ans. fend

1Where is the Headquarter of ICG? Ans. The Hague, Netherlands The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).
2How many hymns are there in Rigveda? Ans. 1028 The Rig Veda consists of 1028 hymns, organised into ten books known as maṇḍalas.
3What is the motto of the Territorial Army? Ans. Savdhani Va Shoorta (Vigilance and Valour)
4Which river flows from Washington DC? Ans. The Potomac River
5Which ​fighter aircraft has the ability to carry Brahmos? Ans. Su-30MKI aircraft
6Fact Check Module aims to check what? Ans. Accuracy
7Match the following joint military exercises – Varuna –  France Indra – Russia Maitree – Thailand Garud Shakti – Indonesia
8Arrange the rings of Olympic logos (left to right direction) – Ans. Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, Red
9What is the largest ecosystem of the earth? Ans. The World Ocean Covering over 71% of the Earth’s surface, it’s a source of livelihood for over 3 billion people.
10What is the light house of the Mediterranean? Ans. Stromboli Volcano
11Who is the author of the play “Andher Nagri Chaupat Raja”? Ans. Bhartendu Harishchandra
12Which instrument is used to measure humidity? Ans. Hygrometer
13What is the name of probe sent to Saturn by NASA, ESA & Italian space agency? Ans. CASSINI
14Match the instruments with the artists – Ustad Bismillah Khan – Shehnai Ustad Vilayat Khan – Sitar Amjad Ali Khan – Sarod V G Jog – Violin
15Gandhiji presided over which Congress session? Ans. 1924 Belgaum Session
16What is the working principle of hydrogen bomb? Ans. Nuclear fusion
17Where is the headquarter of United News Agency? Ans. New Delhi
18Match the following – 52nd Amendment Act – Anti Defection Law 73rd Amendment Act – Panchayati Raj 61st Amendment Act – Voting Age reduced to 18 from 21 years 86th Amendment Act – Right to Education
19Which category aircraft is Tejas? Ans. Light Combat Aircraft
20How many earthquake zones there are in India? Ans. As per the seismic zoning map of the country, the total area is classified into four seismic zones. Based on historical seismic activity, the Bureau of Indian Standards has categorized regions in India into four seismic zones: zones II, III, IV and V. Of these, the most seismically active area is Zone V and the least active is Zone II.
21Which district has received Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence in 2021? Ans. Datia, Madhya Pradesh
22Nusantara is the new capital of which country? Ans. Indonesia It is the future capital of Indonesia set to be inaugurated in August 2024. It will replace Jakarta, the national capital since 1945.
23What is the Motto of the Indian Army? Ans. Service Before Self
24Synonym of PRECARIOUS Ans. Uncertain, Insecure, Risky
25Synonym of PROPONENT Ans. Advocate, Supporter, Promoter
26Antonym of INTRINSIC Ans. Extrinsic, Acquired
27Antonym of COLOSSAL Ans. Tiny, Small, Insignificant
28Idiom – Haul over the coals Ans. To criticize sharply
29Idiom – Take time by the forelock Ans. To seize an opportunity
30One word substitution – A divine force that some people believe controls our lives and in a way protects us (a) Universal (b) Spiritual (c) Providence (d) Metaphysics Ans. Providence
31Fill in the blanks – You must __________ to the rules. Ans. adhere
32Fill in the blanks – An honest person lives by _______________. Ans. the sweat of one’s brows
33Fill in the blanks – A light breeze _________ the forest fire and made it more dangerous. Ans. fend
34Architect : building :: curator:? Ans. Museum
35Injury : helmet :: flood:? Ans. Levee
32Odd one out – Singing, Playing, Writing, Breathing Ans. Breathing (as it is an involuntary activity)
33Odd one out – March, November, August, July Ans. November (only it has 30 days – rest have 31 days)

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 On 26th August – To Be Updated

Who appoints the members of State Public Service Commission?
Ans. Governor

Which Viceroy was assassinated at Andaman & Nicobar Island?
Ans. Lord Mayo
Lord Mayo, who was the Governor-General of India between 1869 and 1872 was assassinated in the Andaman. He was assassinated by Sher Ali Afridi, an Afghan convict in 1872.

What was the theme of the World Environment Day 2022?
Ans. Only One Earth
#OnlyOneEarth is the campaign for World Environment Day 2022. It calls for collective, transformative action on a global scale to celebrate, protect and restore our planet.

The term ‘Regatta’ is associated with which sports?
Ans. Boat Race or Rowing
Any race with boats, be it rowing boats, motorboats, paddleboard, etc is termed as Regatta.

Which valley has the largest coal deposit in India?
Ans. Damodar River Valley
The coalfield lies in the Damodar River valley and covers about 110 square miles (280 square km). The bituminous coal produced there is suitable for coke (most of India’s coal comes from the Jharia and Raniganj fields in the valley).

What is the capital of Sri Lanka?
Ans. Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte
The current capital of Sri Lanka is Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte.

Which of the following is the shortest wavelength? Ans- Gamma rays < X-rays < Blue light < Red light < Radio waves
Thus gamma ray has the shortest wavelength.

Idioms-
jaundiced eye
Ans- means to look upon something with prejudice, usually in a cynical or negative way.

Synonyms-
Prejudice
Ans- Preconception

Synonym – REPRIMAND
Ans. Scold, Rebuke, Chide

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 On 27th August – To Be Updated

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 On 27th August – To Be Updated

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 On 28th August – To Be Updated

Answer Keys And Solutions For AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 On 28th August – To Be Updated

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys And Solution [Download PDF]

  • AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 26th, 2022 [Download PDF]
  • AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 27th, 2022 [Download PDF]
  • AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 28th, 2022 [Download PDF]

If you are preparing for the AFCAT 1 2023 and AFCAT 2 2023 written exam and SSB interview, you can check SSBCrackExams online courses and mock tests.

AFCAT 2 2022 Original Question Papers 26, 27, 28 August [All Sets]

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AFCAT-2-2022-Question-Papers

An online AFCAT 2 2022 exam is currently being conducted all across the country by the Indian Air Force. On August 26, 27, and 28, 2022, several air force aspirants who are interested in joining the Indian Air Force will take the AFCAT 2 2022 examination online in two separate sessions. The time slots that are available to candidates are listed on the admit card, and they are required to appear at the testing facility in batches. The time to report to work for Shift-1 is 07:30 in the morning, while for Shift-2 it is 12:30 in the afternoon.

We will post the AFCAT 2 2022 question papers for all of the sets in this article. The questions and answers are based on a memory-based question-answer exchange. Contacting SSBCrackExams will allow you to acquire the AFCAT 2 2022 original test questions that were asked during shifts 1 and 2 of the AFCAT 2 2022 examination that took place on the 26th, 27th, and 28th of August.

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys 26 August 2022 – Shift 1 [All Sets] – 12:00 PM [MUST WATCH]

AFCAT 2 2022 Answer Keys 26 August 2022 – Shift 2 [All Sets] – 5:00 PM [MUST WATCH]

The AFCAT 2 2022 Exam will be given on the 26, 27, and 28 of August 2022, and it will last until the 28th of August 2022. There will be a lot of candidates who want to take AFCAT 2 2022. The exam is being given in two shifts, called Shift 1 and Shift 2. Candidates for Shift 1 will take the test between 9:45 and 11:45, and candidates for Shift 2 will take the test between 14:15 and 16:15. EKT will happen from 16:30 to 17:15 during Shift 2. AFCAT 2 2022 original question papers for shifts 1 and 2 can be found on SSBCrackExams.

Note: Questions shared by SSBCrackexams students and followers that are memory-based.

AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper (All Sets) – To Be Updated

26, 27 and 28 August AFCAT 2 2022 Question Papers [All Sets]Download Link
AFCAT 2 2022 26 August Question Paper Shift 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 26 August Question Paper Shift 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 27 August Question Paper Shift 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 27 August Question Paper Shift 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 28 August Question Paper Shift 1 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated
AFCAT 2 2022 28 August Question Paper Shift 2 by SSBCrackExamsTo Be Updated

**NOTE MEMORY-BASED QUESTIONS SHARED BY SSBCRACKEXAMS STUDENTS & FOLLOWERS

Shifts 1 and 2 of the AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper will be updated on 26th August 2022.

Soon after the test concludes, SSBCrackExams will update the memory-based shift-2 questions for the AFCAT 2 2022 26th August Questions. The AFCAT 2 2022 questions and answer keys are also available to view on our SSBCrackExams App and YouTube page.

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 on 26th August – To Be Updated

Q) ICJ headquarters?
Ans. The Hague: The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).

Q) how many hymns are in rig Veda?
Ans. 1028 hymns: The Rig Veda consists of 1028 hymns, organised into ten books known as maṇḍalas.

Q) What is the Motto of the territorial army?
Ans. Savdhani Va Shoorta (Vigilance and Valour)

Q) Which fighter aircraft is able to carry the Brahmos missiles?
Ans. IAF Sukhoi 30 MK-I: Recently Air Version Of BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile Was Successfully Test Fired From The Supersonic Fighter Aircraft Sukhoi 30 MK-I

Q) Which river flows from Washington DC?
Ans. The Potomac River

Match the following joint military exercises –
Varuna – France
Indra – Russia
Maitree – Thailand
Garud Shakti – Indonesia

Q) Olympic logo from left to right
Ans. Blue, Yellow, Back, Green, Red

Q) Fact Check Module aims to check what?
Ans. Accuracy

Q) The largest ecosystem of the world
Ans- The World Ocean is the largest existing ecosystem on our planet. Covering over 71% of the Earth’s surface, it’s a source of livelihood for over 3 billion people.


Q) Andher nagari chaupat raja
Ans. Writer is भारतेन्दु हरिश्चंद्र

Q) NASA+ESA + Italian space agency probe to Saturn?
Ans. CASSINI: A joint endeavor of NASA, the European Space Agency, or ESA, and the Italian Space Agency, Cassini

Q) 86th Amendment Act came in-
Ans. 12th December 2002

Q) Instrument used to measure Humidity?
Ans. Hygrometer

Match the instruments with the artists –
Ustad Bismillah Khan – Shehnai
Ustad Vilayat Khan – Sitar
Amjad Ali Khan – Sarod
V G Jog – Violin


Q) Gandhiji presided over which Congress session?
Ans. 1924 Belgaum Session


Q) What is the working principle of the hydrogen bomb?
Ans. Nuclear fusion

Q) Where is the headquarter of United News Agency?
Ans. New Delhi

Match the following
52 Amendment Act- Anti Defection
73rd – Panchayati Rajya
61A amendment Act- 21Year – 18 Year Age Vote
86th Amendment Act- RTE

Q. How many earthquake zones there are in India?
Ans- As per the seismic zoning map of the country, the total area is classified into four seismic zones. Based on historical seismic activity, the Bureau of Indian Standards has categorized regions in India into four seismic zones: zones II, III, IV and V. Of these, the most seismically active area is Zone V and the least active is Zone II.

Q) Which district has received Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence in 2021?
Ans. Datia, Madhya Pradesh

Q) Injury : helmet:: flood:?
Ans. Levee

Q) Architect : building :: curator:?
Ans. Museum

Q) Odd one out – Singing, Playing, Writing, Breathing
Ans. Breathing (as it is an involuntary activity)

Q) Odd one out – March, November, August, July
Ans. November (only it has 30 days – rest have 31 days)

Q) Take time by the forelock
Ans. To seize an opportunity

Synonym of PRECARIOUS
Ans. Uncertain, Insecure, Risky


Synonym of PROPONENT
Ans. Advocate, Supporter, Promoter


Antonym of INTRINSIC
Ans. Extrinsic, Acquired


Antonym of COLOSSAL
Ans. Tiny, Small, Insignificant


Idiom – Haul over the coals
Ans. To criticize sharply

Q) Take time by the forelock
Ans. To seize an opportunity

One word substitution –
A divine force that some people believe controls our lives and in a way protects us
(a) Universal (b) Spiritual (c) Providence (d) Metaphysics
Ans. Providence

Fill in the blanks –
You must __________ to the rules.
Ans. adhere

Fill in the blanks –
An honest person lives by _______________.
Ans. the sweat of one’s brows

Fill in the blanks –
A light breeze _________ the forest fire and made it more dangerous.
Ans. fend

1Where is the Headquarter of ICG? Ans. The Hague, Netherlands The seat of the Court is at the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands). Of the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (United States of America).
2How many hymns are there in Rigveda? Ans. 1028 The Rig Veda consists of 1028 hymns, organised into ten books known as maṇḍalas.
3What is the motto of the Territorial Army? Ans. Savdhani Va Shoorta (Vigilance and Valour)
4Which river flows from Washington DC? Ans. The Potomac River
5Which ​fighter aircraft has the ability to carry Brahmos? Ans. Su-30MKI aircraft
6Fact Check Module aims to check what? Ans. Accuracy
7Match the following joint military exercises – Varuna –  France Indra – Russia Maitree – Thailand Garud Shakti – Indonesia
8Arrange the rings of Olympic logos (left to right direction) – Ans. Blue, Yellow, Black, Green, Red
9What is the largest ecosystem of the earth? Ans. The World Ocean Covering over 71% of the Earth’s surface, it’s a source of livelihood for over 3 billion people.
10What is the light house of the Mediterranean? Ans. Stromboli Volcano
11Who is the author of the play “Andher Nagri Chaupat Raja”? Ans. Bhartendu Harishchandra
12Which instrument is used to measure humidity? Ans. Hygrometer
13What is the name of probe sent to Saturn by NASA, ESA & Italian space agency? Ans. CASSINI
14Match the instruments with the artists – Ustad Bismillah Khan – Shehnai Ustad Vilayat Khan – Sitar Amjad Ali Khan – Sarod V G Jog – Violin
15Gandhiji presided over which Congress session? Ans. 1924 Belgaum Session
16What is the working principle of hydrogen bomb? Ans. Nuclear fusion
17Where is the headquarter of United News Agency? Ans. New Delhi
18Match the following – 52nd Amendment Act – Anti Defection Law 73rd Amendment Act – Panchayati Raj 61st Amendment Act – Voting Age reduced to 18 from 21 years 86th Amendment Act – Right to Education
19Which category aircraft is Tejas? Ans. Light Combat Aircraft
20How many earthquake zones there are in India? Ans. As per the seismic zoning map of the country, the total area is classified into four seismic zones. Based on historical seismic activity, the Bureau of Indian Standards has categorized regions in India into four seismic zones: zones II, III, IV and V. Of these, the most seismically active area is Zone V and the least active is Zone II.
21Which district has received Prime Minister’s Award for Excellence in 2021? Ans. Datia, Madhya Pradesh
22Nusantara is the new capital of which country? Ans. Indonesia It is the future capital of Indonesia set to be inaugurated in August 2024. It will replace Jakarta, the national capital since 1945.
23What is the Motto of the Indian Army? Ans. Service Before Self
24Synonym of PRECARIOUS Ans. Uncertain, Insecure, Risky
25Synonym of PROPONENT Ans. Advocate, Supporter, Promoter
26Antonym of INTRINSIC Ans. Extrinsic, Acquired
27Antonym of COLOSSAL Ans. Tiny, Small, Insignificant
28Idiom – Haul over the coals Ans. To criticize sharply
29Idiom – Take time by the forelock Ans. To seize an opportunity
30One word substitution – A divine force that some people believe controls our lives and in a way protects us (a) Universal (b) Spiritual (c) Providence (d) Metaphysics Ans. Providence
31Fill in the blanks – You must __________ to the rules. Ans. adhere
32Fill in the blanks – An honest person lives by _______________. Ans. the sweat of one’s brows
33Fill in the blanks – A light breeze _________ the forest fire and made it more dangerous. Ans. fend
34Architect : building :: curator:? Ans. Museum
35Injury : helmet :: flood:? Ans. Levee
32Odd one out – Singing, Playing, Writing, Breathing Ans. Breathing (as it is an involuntary activity)
33Odd one out – March, November, August, July Ans. November (only it has 30 days – rest have 31 days)

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 on 26th August – To Be Updated

Who appoints the members of State Public Service Commission?
Ans. Governor

Which Viceroy was assassinated at Andaman & Nicobar Island?
Ans. Lord Mayo
Lord Mayo, who was the Governor-General of India between 1869 and 1872 was assassinated in the Andaman. He was assassinated by Sher Ali Afridi, an Afghan convict in 1872.

What was the theme of the World Environment Day 2022?
Ans. Only One Earth
#OnlyOneEarth is the campaign for World Environment Day 2022. It calls for collective, transformative action on a global scale to celebrate, protect and restore our planet.

The term ‘Regatta’ is associated with which sports?
Ans. Boat Race or Rowing
Any race with boats, be it rowing boats, motorboats, paddleboard, etc is termed as Regatta.

Which valley has the largest coal deposit in India?
Ans. Damodar River Valley
The coalfield lies in the Damodar River valley and covers about 110 square miles (280 square km). The bituminous coal produced there is suitable for coke (most of India’s coal comes from the Jharia and Raniganj fields in the valley).

What is the capital of Sri Lanka?
Ans. Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte
The current capital of Sri Lanka is Sri Jayawardenepura Kotte.

Which of the following is the shortest wavelength? Ans- Gamma rays < X-rays < Blue light < Red light < Radio waves
Thus gamma ray has the shortest wavelength.

Idioms-
jaundiced eye
Ans- means to look upon something with prejudice, usually in a cynical or negative way.

Synonyms-
Prejudice
Ans- Preconception

Synonym – REPRIMAND
Ans. Scold, Rebuke, Chide

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 on 27th August – To Be Updated

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 on 27th August – To Be Updated

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 1 on 28th August – To Be Updated

Questions and Answers for AFCAT 2 2022 – Shift 2 on 28th August – To Be Updated

AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper [Download PDF]

  • AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 26th, 2022 [Download PDF]
  • AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 27th, 2022 [Download PDF]
  • AFCAT 2 2022 Question Paper for Shifts 1 and 2 on August 28th, 2022 [Download PDF]

If you are preparing for the AFCAT 1 2023 and AFCAT 2 2023 written exam and SSB interview, you can check SSBCrackExams online courses and mock tests.

New Cut-Off, Marking & Normalisation Scheme For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

1. The marking scheme is as follows:-
(a) Three marks will be awarded for every correct answer.
(b) One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(c) No marks for unattempted questions.

2. In order to rationalise the marks scored by candidates appearing in different shifts in an objective manner through a statistical method, Normalisation Scheme is being implemented as per the following formula:-

afcat 2 2022 cut off marks normalisation

3. The same normalisation formula is used by the Ministry of Personal, Public Grievance & Pensions as well as Staff Selection Commission and Railway Recruitment Board.

Exam Schedule And Date For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

The AFCAT (and EKT) will be conducted in three days as per the following schedule:

image

Selection Procedure For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

  • The AFCAT online examination will be given by the Indian Air Force at several test sites throughout the nation. The AFCAT 2 2022 online exam will be held on August 26, 27 and 28.
  • The IAF will release the AFCAT 2 2022 results in March 2022, and candidates can view their scores, qualifying scores, and other information on the official website, afcat.cdac.in.
  • The same platform is used by selected candidates to select the location and date of their AFSB interview.
  • The screening test, which consists of verbal, nonverbal, and a PPDT test, is the initial phase of the interview. The chosen candidates will remain at the centres for additional testing, and those who failed it will be released that same day.
  • The next phase entails a personal interview, psychological and GTO tests, a PABT (for only flying), and a conference on the penultimate day, following which the final outcome is declared. The chosen candidates are given a medical exam.

New Syllabus For AFCAT 2 2022

(aa) English. Comprehension, Detect Error in Sentence, Sentence Completion/ Filling in of correct word, Synonym/ Antonym, Cloze Test or Fill in the Gaps in a paragraph, Idioms and Phrases, Analogy, Sentence Rearranging, Substitution in a Sentence/ One Word Substitution.

(ab) General Awareness. History, Geography, Sports, National & International Organisations, Art & Culture, Personalities, Environment & Ecology, Indian Polity, Economy, Basic Science Based Knowledge, Science & Technology, Current Affairs (National & International), Defence.

(ac) Numerical Ability. Decimal Fraction, Time and Work, Average/ Percentage, Profit & Loss, Ratio & Proportion, Simple and Compound Interest, Time & Distance and Races (Trains/ Boats & Streams), Area and Perimeter, Probability, Number System & Number Series, Mixture & Allegation Rules, Clocks.

(ad) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test. Verbal and Non-Verbal Reasoning

Standard Of Questions. The standard of Numerical Ability Questions will be of Matriculation level. The standard of questions in other subjects will be of graduation level (Indian University).

Exam Pattern, Marking Scheme For AFCAT 2 2022 Exam

Exam NameAFCAT – Air Force Common Admission TestEKT Engineering Knowledge Test
Exam ModeComputer-Based (Online)Computer-Based (Online)
Total Questions10050
Maximum Marks300150
Exam Duration2 hours (120 minutes)45 minutes
SubjectsGeneral Awareness, Verbal Ability in English, Numerical Ability and Reasoning and Military Aptitude TestMechanical, Computer Science and Electrical & Electronics
Negative Marking1 mark1 mark

The AFCAT 2023 Exam is a Must If You Want to Join the Indian Air Force.

Also Read:

AFCAT 2 2022 Complete Exam Schedule and Shift Timings

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The Chief of Army Staff, General Bipin Rawat presenting wings to the officers of Flying branch, at the Combined Graduation Parade at Air Force Academy, Dundigal, in Hyderabad on June 17, 2017.

Check AFCAT 2 2022 shift timings, exam dates and exam timings. As per the official notification of AFCAT 2 2022 published on 01 June 2022, AFCAT 2 2022 online written exam will be conducted on 26 Aug 22, 27 Aug 22, and 28 Aug 2022. Candidates will get their AFCAT exam date from one of these three dates. Each day there will be two shifts i.e. 1st shift and 2nd shift. Reporting time for Shift-1 is 07:30 hours and for Shift-2 it is 12:30 hours. Below you can check the details AFCAT 2 2022 shift timings for shift 1 and 2. Both AFCAT and EKT 2022 exam timings are given below in detail.

AFCAT Question Papers

If you are preparing for the AFCAT 1 2022 written exam and SSB interview, you can check SSBCrackExams online courses and mock tests.

AFCAT Scheme of Online Examination

All applicants whose applications are submitted by due date will be called for AFCAT at one of the examination centers on either 26 Aug 22 (Friday), 27 Aug 22 (Saturday) and 27 Aug 22 (Sunday). It is mandatory for the candidates opting for Ground Duty (Technical) branch to appear in both AFCAT as well as Engineering Knowledge Test (EKT).

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AFCAT 2 2022 Exam Schedule and Date

The AFCAT (and EKT) will be conducted in three days as per the following schedule:

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Candidates will not be permitted to enter the exam centre, under any circumstance, after the pre-exam verification process has commenced at 07:30 hrs for shift-I and 12:30 hrs for shift-II.

AFCAT Syllabus

The subjects, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follow:

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The Online examination will consist of objective type questions and will be in English only for both AFCAT and EKT.

Marking Scheme is as follows:-
(aa) Three marks will be awarded for every correct answer.
(ab) One mark will be deducted for every incorrect answer.
(ac) No marks for unattempted questions.

Standard and Syllabus of the Examination:

(aa) English. Comprehension, Error Detection, Sentence Completion/Filling in of correct word, Synonyms, Antonyms and Testing of Vocabulary,Idioms and Phrases.


(ab) General Awareness. History, Geography, Civics, Politics, CurrentAffairs, Environment, Basic Science, Defence, Art, Culture, Sports, etc

(ac) Numerical Ability. Decimal Fraction, Time and Work, Average, Profit & Loss, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion and Simple Interest, Time & Distance (Trains/Boats & Streams).

(ad) Reasoning and Military Aptitude Test.Verbal Skills and Spatial Ability.

If you are preparing for the AFCAT 1 2022 written exam and SSB interview, you can check SSBCrackExams online courses and mock tests.

JAG 30 Recruitment Judge Advocate General Notification Indian Army

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Indian Army is going to publish the JAG 30 i.e. Judge Advocate General 30th Course notification soon on their official website. All male and female law graduates who are eligible for this entry can apply for this special entry. Find more details related to the 30th Short Service Commission JAG Entry Scheme Course (Men and Women) April 2023 course for law graduates.

Indian army’s official career website will publish JAG Course 30 Notification on 24 August 2022 and registration will be open from 24 August 2022 onward, the last date to apply for the JAG 30 is 24th August 2022. JAG 30th course JAG entry 2022 (Judge Advocate General Branch) will commence in April 2023 at OTA Chennai. It is a special entry for male and female law graduates to join the JAG branch of the Indian Army.

JAG 30 Notification Judge Advocate General Branch

JAG 30 EventsDates
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Application Start Date24 August 2022
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Application Last Date22 September 2022
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme SSB DateOct-Nov 2022
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Merit ListMarch- April 2023
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Joining DateApril 2023
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme SSB CoachingJoin SSB Coaching
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme SSB BooksGet SSB Book
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Job PostArmy Officer
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Vacancies50+ Vacancies
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Salary/ Pay ScaleRs. 56100/- to 177500/- (Level-10)
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Mode of ApplyOnline
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Official Websitejoinindianarmy.nic.in
JAG 30 Special Entry Scheme Notification PDFWill Be Updated
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JAG 30 Notification 2022

Applications are invited from unmarried male and unmarried female LAW GRADUATES for grant of Short Service Commission in the Indian Army for the Judge Advocate General Branch.

Nationality: A candidate must either be: (i) A citizen of India, or (ii) A subject of Nepal, (iii) A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India, provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal.

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JAG officer at OTA Chennai
Indian Army JAG Officer Commissioned at OTA Chennai

Judge Advocate General JAG 30 Age Limit

  • 21 to 27 years as of 01 Jan 2023 (Born not earlier than 02 Jan 1996 and not later than 01 Jan 2002; both dates inclusive).

Note: Candidates should note that the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will only be accepted and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.

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JAG 30 Educational Qualification

  • Minimum 55% aggregate marks in LLB Degree (three years professional after graduation or five years after 10+2 examination).
  • The candidates should be eligible for registration as advocates with the Bar Council of India/State. The candidate should be from a College/University recognized by the Bar Council of India.

JAG 30 Vacancies

  • Correct vacancies for the JAG 30 will be published on 24th August 2022.

Tenure of Engagement

Short Service Commission will be granted to Male and Female in the regular Army for 14 years i.e. for an initial period of 10 years extendable by a further period of 04 years. Male & Female officers who are willing to continue to serve in the Army after the expiry of period of ten years of Short Service Commission may, if eligible and suitable in all respects, be considered for the grant of Permanent Commission (PC) in the 10th year of their Short Service Commission in accordance with the relevant policies as issued from time to time. Those SSC officers (Male & Female) who are not selected for grant of PC but are otherwise considered fit and suitable, will be given options to continue as SSCOs for a total period of 14 years (including the initial tenure of 10 years) on expiry of which they will be released from the Army.

Period of Probation: An officer will be on probation for a period of 6 months from the date he/she receives his/her commission. If he/she is reported on within the probationary period as unsuitable to retain his/her commission, his/her services may be terminated any time whether before or after the expiry of the probationary period.

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JAG 30 Training

The duration of training is 49 weeks at OTA, Chennai.

  • Selected candidates will be detailed for Pre-Commission training at OTA, Chennai according to their position in the final order of merit, up to the number of available vacancies, subject to meeting all eligibility criteria.
  • Candidates will neither be allowed to marry during the period of training nor will he/she be allowed to live with parents/Guardians. Candidates must not marry until they complete the full training at the Officers Training Academy. A candidate, who marries subsequent to the date of his/her application, though successful at the Services Selection Board interview and medical examination, will not be eligible for training. A candidate if he/she marries, while under training, shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him/her by the government.
  • All candidates who successfully complete Pre-Commission training at Officers Training Academy, Chennai will be awarded ‘Post Graduate Diploma in Defence Management and Strategic Studies’ by University of Madras

Fixed Stipend for Cadet Training: ₹ 56,100/-p.m.*

*On successful commissioning, the pay in the Pay Matrix of the Officer commissioned shall be fixed in the first Cell of Level 10. The period of training shall not be treated as commissioned service. Arrears on account of admissible allowances, as applicable, for the training period shall be paid to cadets.

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How to apply for JAG 30

  1. Applications will only be accepted online on website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. Click on ‘Officer Entry Appln/Login’ and then click ‘Registration’ (Registrations not required, if already registered on www.joinindianarmy.nic.in).
  2. Fill the online registration form after reading the instructions carefully. After getting registered, click on ‘Apply Online’ under Dashboard. A page ‘Officers Selection – ‘Eligibility’ will open. Then click ‘Apply’ shown against Short Service Commission JAG Entry Course.
  3. A page ‘Application Form’ will open. Read the instructions carefully and click ‘Continue’ to fill details as required under various segments. Personal information, Communication details, Education details and details of previous SSB.
  4. ‘Save & Continue’ each time before you go to the next segment. After filling details on the last segment, you will move to a page ‘Summary of your information’ wherein you can check and edit the entries already made.
  5. Only after ascertaining the correctness of all your details, click on ‘Submit Now’. Candidates must click on ‘Submit Now’ each time they open the application for editing any details.
  6. The candidates are required to take out two copies of their application having Roll Number, 30 minutes after final closure of online application on last day.
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JAG 30 Selection Procedure

  • Shortlisting of Applications. Integrated HQ of MoD (Army) reserves the right for shortlisting of applications, without assigning any reason. After shortlisting of applications, the Centre allotment will be intimated to candidates via their email.
  • After allotment of Selection Centre, candidates will have to log in to the website and select their SSB dates which are available on a first come first serve basis initially.
  • Thereafter, it will be allotted by the Selection Centres. The option to select the dates for SSB by candidates may be forfeited due to occurrence of any exceptional circumstance/events.
  • Only shortlisted eligible candidates will undergo SSB at Selection Centres, Allahabad(UP), Bhopal(MP), Bangalore (Karnataka) and Kapurthala (PB).
  • Call up letter for SSB interview will be issued by respective Selection Centre on candidate’s registered e-mail id and SMS only.
  • Allotment of Selection Centre is at the discretion of Directorate General of Recruiting, IHQ of MoD (Army) and No request for changes will be entertained in this regard.
  • Candidates will be put through two stage selection procedure. Those who clear Stage I will go to Stage II. Those who fail in stage I will be returned on the same day.
  • Duration of SSB interview is five days and details of the same are available on official website of Directorate General of Recruiting i.e, www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.
  • This will be followed by a medical examination for the candidates who get recommended after Stage II.

Candidates recommended by the SSB and declared medically fit will be issued a joining letter for training in the order of merit, depending on the number of vacancies available, subject to meeting all eligibility criteria.

Short Service Commission (NT) JAG Entry Scheme 30th Course for Men & Women Law Graduates (scheduled in April 2023). Applications are open from 24 August to 22 September 2022.

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Note: Candidates are suggested to wait for the official notification for more details. The above-mentioned details may or may not change. For detailed information visit joinindianarmy.nic.in

To crack the Indian Army JAG 30 Entry Course SSB Interview, You can join our SSB interview live classes batch and we recommend you to Enroll SSB INTERVIEW ONLINE COURSE. Trusted by thousands of defence aspirants.

JAG Entry Frequently Asked Questions

What is the age limit for the Indian Army JAG 30 Recruitment 2022?

21 to 27 years as of 01 Jan 2023 (Born not earlier than 02 Jan 1996 and not later than 01 Jan 2002; both dates inclusive).

Who can apply for the JAG entry?

Unmarried male and unmarried female LAW GRADUATES can apply for JAG entry.

IAF fires 3 officers for launching a missile inadvertently into Pakistan

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IAF-Sacks-3-Officers-for-BrahMos-Misfire

The Indian Air Force has dismissed three officers who were largely deemed accountable for the March 9, 2022 BrahMos missile misfiring incident. The missile had landed inside Pakistan.

It added that termination orders had been served on the officers on Tuesday and that Central Government had immediately terminated their services.

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The missile was accidentally fired, according to an update provided by the Indian Air Force, as a result of three officers deviating from the Standard Operating Procedures (SOP). Soon after the incident, a court of inquiry was established to determine the facts of the case, including assigning blame for the incident.

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Indian Army TES 48 10+2 Technical Entry Scheme Notification [Apply Now]

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Online applications are now being accepted for the TES (10+2) Entry-48 course (January 2023) and will be available on joinindianarmy.nic.in from 22 August to 21 September 2022. JEE Mains 2022 is now a requirement for the TES 48 entry. In addition, you must have received at least 60% in PCM (Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics) in your 12th-grade class.

TES 48 Notification 10+2 TECHNICAL ENTRY SCHEME 48 January 2023 Course. Indian army is going to publish the TES 48 notification on 22nd August 2022 for the candidates who have completed the 12th standard with PCM with an aggregate of 60%. 

TES 48 Online applications will open on 22th Aug 2022. Applications are invited from unmarried Male Candidates who have passed 10+2 examination with Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics (Hereinafter referred to as PCM) subjects and fulfill the eligibility conditions prescribed in the subsequent paragraphs, for the grant of Permanent Commission in the Army after four years of Basic Military Training and Technical Training thereafter with the terms and conditions given in the succeeding paragraphs.

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EventsDates
TES 48 Registration Date22 Aug 2022
TES 48 Closing Date21 September 2022
TES 48 Final Cut off marks (for SSB interview)Anywhere from 78%-85%
TES 48 SSB Datesfrom Oct 2022
TES 48 Merit ListDec 2022
TES 48 Course JoiningJan 2023
TES 48 SSB Interview Online CourseSSB Interview Online Course
TES 48 SSB Interview Online CoachingSSB Interview Online Coaching
Read official notificationTES 48 PDF

TES 48 Age Limit: A candidate must not be below 16½ years and above 19½ years on the first day of the month in which the course is due to commence i.e. the candidate should not be born before 02 Jul 2003 and not after 01 Jul 2006 (both days inclusive).

TES 48 Educational Qualification: Only those candidates who have passed 10+2 Examination or its equivalent with a minimum aggregate of 60% marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics from recognized education boards are eligible to apply for this entry. Eligibility condition for calculating PCM percentage of various state /central boards will be based on marks obtained in Class XII only. Candidate must have appeared in JEE (Mains) 2022.

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TES 48 Vacancies: 90. The Vacancies are provisional and can be changed depending on the training capacity at the Training Academy for this course. The vacancies are subject to increase/decrease keeping the organizational requirement at the point of time.

Training

  • Basic Military Training: 1 year (Officer Training Academy Gaya).
  • Technical Training: (i) Phase-I (Pre Commission Training): 3 Years (CME Pune or MCTE Mhow or MCEME Secunderabad), (ii) Phase-II (Post Commission Training): 1 year at CME Pune or MCTE Mhow or MCEME Secunderabad.
  • Award of Degree: The candidates will be awarded Engineering degree after successful completion of the final examination. No ante date will be admissible to candidates on account of this Engineering degree. During the last two semesters, the officers will be permitted only one relegation on academic grounds. This relegation will be within the maximum two relegations permitted on academic grounds in the entire Engineering degree (8 semesters) in accordance with JNU Ordinance. Any further relegation of the officer on academic grounds will lead to termination of his commission.
  • Type of Commission: On successful completion of 4 years of the course, cadets will be granted Permanent Commission in the Army in the rank of Lt.
  • Seniority: They will be granted seniority on overall order of merit of the three technical institutes combined i.e. CME, MCTE, MCEME and in case the date of commissioning coincides with that of IMA, Dehradun, they will be placed en-block junior to IMA (NDA/ ACC / DE Course ) but above TGC / UES course.
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Salary/Pay

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Fixed Stipend for Cadet Trainng: The gentlemen cadets will be given a stipend of ₹ 56,100/-p.m.* as is admissible to NDA cadets on completion of 3 years training. On completion of 4 years training, they will be commissioned in the rank of Lt and entitled to pay as admissible to the rank.

How to Apply: Application will only be accepted online. To do so the candidate needs to click on the ‘online application’ button on website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.

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Selection Procedure

  • Shortlisting of Applications. Integrated HQ of MoD (Army) reserves the right to shortlist applications based on cut off percentage applied as decided. After shortlisting of candidates, the Centre allotment will be intimated to the candidate online. After allotment of Selection Centre, candidates will have to log in to the website and select their SSB dates on a first come first serve basis.
  • Only shortlisted eligible candidates depending on the cutoff percentage will undergo SSB at one of the Selection Centres i.e, Allahabad (UP), Bhopal (MP), Bengaluru (Karnataka) or Kapurthala (Punjab) by Psychologist, Group Testing Officer and Interviewing Officer. Call Up letter for SSB interview will be issued by respective Selection Centres on candidate’s registered e-mail ID and SMS only. Allotment of Selection Centre is at the discretion of Directorate General of Recruiting, Integrated Headquarters of MoD (Army) and NO request for changes are entertained in this regard.
  • Candidates will be put through two stage selection procedure. Those who clear Stage I will go to Stage II. Those who fail in Stage I will be returned on the same day. Duration of SSB interview is five days and details of the same are available at the official website of Directorate General of Recruiting www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. This will be followed by a medical examination for the candidates who get recommended after Stage II.
  • In the eventuality of being recommended by SSB, candidate should have no objection for undergoing medical examination by board of Male/Female doctors.
  • Candidates recommended by the SSB and declared medically fit, will be issued joining letter for training in the order of merit, depending on the number of vacancies available.
  • The finally selected candidates will execute all the Bonds/Certificates as prescribed for the Cadets of NDA entry under AI 53/78.
  • The candidate will not have any objection in the event of final selection, on allotment of any Arm/Service in the interest of organisation.

For SSB interview, print out of online application must be accompanied by original documents along with two sets of self attested photocopies i.e. 10th class certificate issued by the Board concerned (CBSE/ State Boards/lCSE) in which date of birth is reflected for proof of date of birth (Admit card/Mark sheet/Transfer/Leaving Certificate etc. are not acceptable as proof of date of birth) and 10+2 certificate and mark sheet for proof of education and a copy of result of JEE (Mains) 2022. Revised mark sheets issued by a Board/University after last date of submitting online application will not be accepted for this course. Shortlisted candidates will be detailed to undergo SSB interview from Oct 2022 onwards.

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PROCEDURE FOR COMMON CANDIDATES : TES & NDA ENTRY

  • The candidates who apply for 10+2 Technical Entry Scheme (TES) and National Defence Academy (NDA & NA) parallel courses need to undergo a medical examination by a Board of Service Medical Officers for the entries recommended.
  • Those candidates who are recommended for TES prior to their NDA SSB will have to undergo medical for TES and NDA (AF and Navy) separately.
  • If only NDA Army is their preference these TES candidates need not undergo NDA medical again. The NDA medical examination will begin only after the candidate is declared FIT in TES medicals.
  • The candidates who are recommended in NDA prior to SSB for TES need not undergo medical for TES separately. The Medical Status for TES (10+2) will be same as NDA (Army) medical examination. A candidate declared UNFIT in NDA will be considered UNFIT for TES as well.
  • If the candidate is found UNFIT/ UNFIT IN ABSENTIA at any stage of medical examination in any entry i.e. TES or NDA & NA parallel courses he will be declared UNFIT for both the entries and no representation will be accepted thereafter.

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MERIT LIST: IT MUST BE NOTED THAT MERE QUALIFYING AT THE SSB INTERVIEW DOES NOT CONFIRM FINAL SELECTION. MERIT WILL BE PREPARED ON THE BASIS OF MARKS OBTAINED BY THE CANDIDATE AT SSB INTERVIEW. HIGHER EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS, PREVIOUS PERFORMANCES, NCC BACKGROUND ETC. HAVE NO ROLE TO PLAY FOR FINALIZATION OF MERIT LIST. JOINING LETTERS TO JOIN PRE-COMMISSION TRAINING AT OTA, GAYA WILL ONLY BE ISSUED SUBJECT TO VACANCIES AND MEDICAL FITNESS.

To crack the Indian Army TES 48 Entry Course SSB Interview, You can join our SSB interview live classes batch and we recommend you to Enroll SSB INTERVIEW ONLINE COURSE. Trusted by thousands of defence aspirants.

Is it Possible for Army Officers to Join RAW Research and Analysis Wing?

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Can Army Officers Become RAW Agents

The Research and Analytical Wing (RAW) is the foreign intelligence agency of India.

The agency’s primary function is gathering foreign intelligence, counter-terrorism, counter-proliferation, advising Indian policymakers, and advancing India’s foreign strategic interests.

RAW was founded on 21st September 1968 and is headquartered in New Delhi.

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At present, the undercover agency operates under the Prime Ministers’ Office.

Also Read: Can a Para SF Officer join the R&AW

There is no recruitment process done for the RAW. All recruitments are done secretly.

In order to be selected for the RAW Agency through the armed forces, one must ensure that they are physically and mentally fit all the time.

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Can Army Officers become RAW Agents?

The answer is yes.

If you show potential at the military academy, you may get spotted by the RAW Agency recruiters. Once you come under the radar of the recruiters, they keep close tabs on you. If selected, rigorous training is carried out in the fields of combat, military tactics, languages, common techniques, information security, scientific knowledge, etc.

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If not through the armed forces, candidates who attempt the UPSC Exam are also recruited. Candidates are also recruited directly from college or university.

In case of the armed forces, once you become an A-grade Officer in the Army, Air Force or Navy, you can get recruited to become a RAW Agent. Generally, an A-grade Officer from the Indian Armed Forces, Intelligence Agency, Police Service, and Administrative Services, etc., has a higher chance of getting recruited.

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Doing extraordinary work, being an active soldier and having relevant and extra skills will get you noticed by the RAW Agency.

Knowing multiple languages, combat skills, critical thinking, decision making, etc., increases your chances of being recruited.

Even an individual who excels in a particular field of science, arts, data analytics, etc., may be recruited by the RAW Agency.

There is very little information about the recruitment process of the agency as everything is done with utmost secrecy.

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Candidates who are recruited have to keep it a secret.

Individuals are recruited from the armed forces as well as from colleges and universities. If the agency deems you fit, the recruiters will put you through a series of tests to evaluate your competence.

indian army raw

If found physically and mentally fit, you will be asked the join the agency.

As seen above, anyone from an Army Officer to a serving soldier to an undergraduate student can be recruited by the RAW.

The process of recruitment still remains a mystery which is how the RAW Agency has managed to remain one of the greatest undercover agencies in the world.

I hope this article was informative and insightful.

Lt Col and Subedar Major detained by the CBI in Rs 22.48 lakh bribery case

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Lt-Col-and-Subedar-Major-detained-by-CBI

A Senior Barrack Officer (Lt Col), a Subedar Major, both of MES, Ambala Cantt (Haryana), and two private individuals (Contractors) have been detained by the CBI in connection with a Rs 22.48 lakh bribery case.

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During the searches, Rs. 32.50 lakh (approx.) and evidence against the Lt. Col. were found on his property, and Rs. 16 lakh (approx.) was found in the possession of the private persons (Contractors).

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The person was accused of asking for a bribe, so a case was opened against them. The alleged bribe payment was made to make sure that most of Ambala Cantt’s tenders and orders went to the same private contractors.

All the four arrested accused will be produced before the competent court.

The arrested accused has been identified as :

1. Rahul Pawar Senior Barracks Store Officer(Lt Col), MES, Ambala Cantt.

2. Pardeep Kumar Subedar Major, MES, Ambala Cantt.

3. Dinesh Kumar and Pritpal, Private People (Both Contractors).

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Indian Navy 10+2 (B.Tech) Cadet Entry Scheme 2022 For January 2023

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Cadet Entry Scheme for Navy 10+2 (B.Tech) 2022 for January 2023 Course: The latest notification on the recruitment of unmarried male candidates to enter the Indian Naval Academy in Ezhimala, Kerala for a four-year B.Tech degree course under the 10+2 (B.Tech) Cadet Entry Scheme for the following branches has been announced by the Indian Navy.

Indian Navy 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme Notification

Indian Navy has officially published the 10+2 (B.TECH) CADET ENTRY SCHEME (PERMANENT COMMISSION) Notification for which the course is going to commence in January 2023. Applications are invited from UNMARRIED MALE CANDIDATES (fulfilling the conditions of nationality as laid down by the Govt. of India) to join the prestigious Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala for a four year B.Tech degree course under the 10+2 (B.Tech) Cadet Entry Scheme.

EventsDates
Registration Open Date18 August 2022
Registration Closing Date28 August 2022
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The selected candidates will be distributed among Education, Executive and Technical branches of Indian Navy on completion of their course at INA. The branch-wise vacancies are as under.

OrganisationIndian Navy
Entry Name10+2 (B.Tech) Cadet Entry Scheme Jan 2023
Post NameCommissioned Officers
Vacancies36
Job LocationAll India
Last Date to ApplyAug 28, 2022
Mode of ApplyOnline
CategoryIndian Navy Jobs
Official Websitewww.joinindiannavy.gov.in
Join Telegram GroupClick Here
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Navy 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme 2022 Notification PDFClick Here
Navy 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme 2022 Apply Online (from 18.8.2022)Click Here
Join Indian Navy Official WebsiteClick Here

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Indian Navy 10+2 Btech Vacancies And Age Limits

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  • Only one application is to be filled by a candidate.
  • Candidates may apply for Branch (a) or (b) or (both).
  • Candidates will be shortlisted for SSB based on their first preference.
  • If not shortlisted for the first preference you may be considered for alternate branch subject to availability of spare slot in SSB batches of that Branch.
  • Once shortlisted for a branch, subsequent stages of selection process (SSB, medical & Merit List) will be exclusively for that branch.
  • If a candidate has opted for only one branch he will not be considered for other branch despite being in merit.
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Indian Navy 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme Notification Age

Born between 02 July 2003 and 01 Jan 2006 (both dates inclusive).

Indian Navy 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme Notification Educational Qualification

Passed Senior Secondary Examination (10+2 Pattern) or its equivalent examinations from any Board with at least 70% aggregate marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics (PCM) and at least 50% marks in English (either in Class X or Class XII).

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Indian Navy 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme Notification Who Can Apply

Candidates who have appeared for JEE (Main) -2022(for B.E./ B.Tech) exam. Call up for Service Selection Board (SSB) will be issued on the basis of JEE (Main) – 2022 All India Rank published by NTA.

Indian Navy Young Officers
Indian Navy’s Young Officers After Passing Out From INA

10+2 Btech Indian Navy Cut Off Marks – LAST CUT OFF

  • 10+2 Btech Indian Navy Executive and Technical: 89716 JEE Rank
  • 10+2 Btech Indian Navy Education: 52677 JEE Rank

Indian Navy 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme Notification Medical Standards:

  • All candidates recommended by SSB will have to undergo medicals as per extant regulations. There is no relaxation in medical standard on any ground. Guidelines for medical standards are available on the Indian Navy website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
  • Relaxations in height is permissible to candidates holding domicile of specific regions details of which are available on the Indian Navy website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
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Indian Navy 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme Notification Selection Procedure

  • IHQ of MoD(Navy) reserves the right to fix the cut off for shortlisting of applications for SSB based on JEE (Main) All India Common Rank List (CRL) – 2022. SSB interviews for short listed candidates will be scheduled at Bangalore / Bhopal / Kolkata / Visakhapatnam from September – October 2022.
  • Shortlisted candidates will be informed about their selection for SSB interview on their E-mail or through SMS as provided by candidates in their application form. You are advised to maintain your mobile number and e-mail ID till selection process is complete.
  • SSB interview will be conducted in two stages. Stage I test consists of Intelligence test, Picture Perception and Group Discussion. Candidates who fail to qualify in Stage I will be routed back on the same day. Stage II test comprises Psychological testing, Group testing and Interview which will last for 04 days. Successful candidates will thereafter undergo Medical Examination (approx duration 03-05 working days).
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Indian Navy 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme Notification Merit List

A separate merit list for the executive and technical branch and education branch (in combined) will be prepared based on SSB marks. Candidates who are declared fit in medical examination would be appointed as per the availability of vacancies in respective branches.

Indian Navy 10+2 Cadet Entry Scheme Notification Training

Candidates recommended by the SSBs and declared medically fit, will be selected for training in Indian Naval Academy Ezhimala, Kerala, based on All India Merit and number of vacancies. All India Merit will be prepared as per SSB marks. Selected Candidates will be inducted as Cadets for the four year B.Tech Course in Applied Electronics & Communication Engineering, Mechanical Engineering or Electronics & Communication Engineering as per Naval requirements. On completion of the course, B.Tech Degree will be awarded by the Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU). Distribution of cadets amongst Executive, Education, Engineering, Electrical & Electrical Branch (Technical Branch) will be as per the extant policy.

How To Apply: Candidates are to register and submit their application on the recruitment website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in from 18 August 2022. To save time during the application submission window, candidates can fill in their details and upload documents in advance under their user profile. The procedure for applying online is explained in the notification below.

Defence Minister Rajnath Singh Cleared Army Officer SSC Exam But Couldn’t Join the Army

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Rajnath-Singh-Cleared-Army-Officer-SSC-Exam

Raksha Mantri Shri Rajnath Singh went to Mantripukhri, Manipur, on August 19, 2022, to visit the Headquarters Inspector General Assam Rifles (South) and talk to troops from the Red Shield Division and the Assam Rifles. He was with Chief of the Army Staff General Manoj Pande, GOC-in-C Eastern Command Lieutenant General RP Kalita, GOC Spear Corps Lieutenant General RC Tiwari, and other senior Army and Assam Rifles officers.

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During the visit, the Raksha Mantri was told about operations to stop insurgencies and manage the border between India and Myanmar in order to keep peace and quiet in the area.

Defense Minister Rajnath Singh said on Friday that when he was young, he wanted to join the Indian Army. He even took the test to join the military, but he couldn’t do it because his family was having trouble.

In Imphal, the senior Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) leader told his childhood story to the personnel of the Assam Rifles and the 57th Mountain Division of the Indian Army.

“I want to tell you a story from when I was a kid. I, too, wanted to join the Army, so I went to the test for the Short Service Commission. I gave the test on paper. But I couldn’t join the Army because of things going on in my family, like the death of my father,” Singh said.

“If you give a kid an Army uniform, you’ll see that it changes who he is. This uniform has a certain charm, “he said 

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