Indian army has published the Army Cadet College ACC 120 Merit list. There were 75 vacancies in ACC 120 course and 75 serving candidates have been recommended this time, in ACC 119 only 37 serving candidates were able to make it. You can check the ACC 120 merit list linked below.
Hello everybody, I am Divya Pareek and I have been recommended by 34 SSB, Allahabad in my first attempt for the National Defence Academy. I have always been interested to join the Army and in class 11th I started my preparation to join the prestigious National Defence Academy, by reading the experiences of recommended candidates on SSBCrack, it also helped me to get to know about the complete procedure of the SSB. I gave my 1st attempt for NDA written in September, 2018, but I couldn’t clear it and due to that I also couldn’t focus on my 12th due to which I scored just 71% in 12th boards, but thankfully because of my tuition teacher I was able to score 95/100 in my Maths boards exam. And all this prep. and guidance from my tuition teacher, I was able to clear NDA 1,2019. Then I started my prep. for SSB, took guidance from some very helpful people, and practiced psych tests and worked on my physical fitness. Now I will share my 5 day experience:
DAY 1- SCREENING
Being NDA entry the no. of candidates were just 70. Screening was on the next day of reporting at the centre and we were all seated in a hall with our chest nos. and an assessor came and briefed us about the tests that were to be organized on that day. First was our OIR test, most of the questions were of cube and I would suggest you practice OIR as much as you can before SSB, then came the PPDT and a hazy picture was shown, all of us made different stories. Our papers were taken and we were told to wait there for further instructions, we were a group of 18 freshers and knew that we would be made into a single group so we, in advance decided that we won’t make a fish market. I narrated my story confidently, in the GD participated and also gave chance to others. Soon, an assessor came and started announcing the chest nos. of screened in candidates in a systematic order starting from chest no. 1, I was chest no. 15, but after 14 he called 16 and I was hopeful that he would come back and say 15, but he reached 70 and I was disheartened but then he again started calling more chest nos. and 15 was called! Then I was given chest no. 14.
DAY 2- PSYCHOLOGY TEST
On 2nd day all of us 40 candidates reported in the hall and were again briefed about the tests. Our first test was TAT in which I made simple stories with a problem and how the hero solves it. After that I did all 60 WATs and 57 SRTs and wrote a precise and crisp SD.
DAY 3- GTO-I
All of us reported in the gto ground at
0630hrs and waited there for the assesors, then our group was from chest no.11
to chest no.20 and 1st we had our both the GDs (if u have good
knowledge of current affairs and presence of mind then these topics are easy), after
that we had GPE and then came the PGT in which at first because of too many
people and less space we couldn’t do anything and the GTO had to interfere but
after some time we were doing good. Throughout our tasks the GTO never asked us
all to go through, instead he kept changing colours and asked for ideas (as
most of us were not apt with the art of tying a rope) and then how the last
person would reach. Then came our group
obstacle race in which we were penalized many times but still managed to come 1st,
after that or day ended with lecturette which I gave confidently, loud and
clear.
DAY 4- GTO-II
On the 4th day it was pouring
heavily but still our gto went on with IO being the first one which was
comparatively tough as the surface was slippery and ropes were also wet and it
was raining, I did 9 obstacles. Then came the HGT in which I gave many ideas
which were successfully implemented. After that was our CT in which nine was of
moderate difficulty and I was called thrice as subordinate. FGT was very easy
and was completed within minutes. On the same day was my interview which lasted
for just 20-25 minutes in which he asked me various questions regarding family,
edu., hobbies and a few GK questions. There were some questions I was not able
to answer but I remained confident. He asked me about different instances of my
life, instances of me going out of my way to help a friend, etc. I was also
asked different uses of a pencil. He also asked me reason for % drop, but he
was satisfied with my genuine answer. So acc. to me u should be confident
throughout and have a good presence of mind.
My conference was over in seconds and I was asked general questions like how was your stay and all. Then results were announced and chest no. 14 was called and I was on cloud 9, finally my 2 years of hardwork had paid off!
Finally, I would like to say that when u go there just chill, don’t worry about your performance, enjoy the experience as it’s a once in a lifetime experience and do your best.
AA and SSR Notification: INDIAN NAVY INVITES ONLINE APPLICATIONS FROM UNMARRIED MALE CANDIDATES FOR ENROLMENT AS SAILORS FOR ARTIFICER APPRENTICE (AA) & SENIOR SECONDARY RECRUITS (SSR) – AUG 2020 BATCH COURSE COMMENCING AUGUST 2020. Online applications are invited from unmarried male candidates (who fulfill eligibility conditions as laid down by the Government of India) for enrolment as sailors for AA and SSR for 500 & 2200 vacancies (Approximately) respectively in the Aug 2020 batch.
AA– Qualified in 10+2 examination with 60% or more marks in aggregate with Maths & Physics and at least one of these subjects:- Chemistry/Biology/Computer Science from the Boards of School Education recognised by MHRD, Govt. of India.
SSR– Qualified in 10+2 examination with Maths & Physics and atleast one of these subjects: – Chemistry/Biology/Computer Science from the Boards of School Education recognised by MHRD, Govt. of India.
Age: Candidates should be born between 01 Aug 2000 to 31 Jul 2003 (Both dates inclusive).
Pay & Allowances: During the initial training period, a stipend of Rs. 14,600/- per month will be admissible. On successful completion of initial training, they will be placed in Level 3 of the Defence Pay Matrix (₹ 21,700- ₹69,100). In addition, they will be paid MSP @ ₹ 5200/- per month plus DA (as applicable) plus „X‟ Group pay {only for Artificer Apprentice (AA)} @ Rs. 6200/- per month plus DA (as applicable).
Promotion: Promotion prospects exist up to the rank of Master Chief Petty Officer-I, i.e. Level 8 of the Defence Pay Matrix (₹ 47,600- ₹ 1,51,100) plus MSP @ ₹ 5200/- per month plus DA (as applicable). Opportunities for promotion to commissioned officer also exist for those who perform well and qualify the prescribed examinations.
SELECTION CRITERIA
AA– Selection of recruits is based on the all India order of merit on their performance in Computer based Examination, subject to qualifying Physical Fitness Test (PFT) and fitness in Medical Examinations.
SSR-Selection of recruits is based on State wise merit of their performance in Computer-based Examination, subject to qualifying Physical Fitness Test (PFT) and fitness in Medical Examinations.
SSR and AR Computer-based Examination
One common examination will be conducted for AA and SSR entries.
The question paper will be computer-based with a total of 100 questions, each carrying 01 mark.
The question paper will be bilingual (Hindi & English) and objective type (multiple-choice).
The question paper will comprise of four sections i.e. English, Science, Mathematics and General Knowledge.
The standard of the question paper will be that of 10+2 Syllabus & sample papers for the examination are available on website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in.
Duration of examination will be one hour.
The candidates are required to pass in all sections and in aggregate. The Navy reserves the right to determine the pass marks in each Section and in aggregate.
Penalty for Wrong Answer. Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the question paper. There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one fourth (0.25) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
AA and SSR Physical Fitness Test (PFT)
Qualifying in Physical Fitness Test (PFT) is mandatory for selection.
PFT will consist of 1.6 Km run to be completed in 7 minutes, 20 squats (Uthak Baithak) and 10 Push-ups. Candidates undergoing PFT will do so at their own risk.
Advisory:- Proficiency in sports, swimming and extra-curricular activities is desirable
The applications are to be filled online only on website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in and all required documents in original are to be scanned and uploaded. The selection procedure is as follows
Examination city/centre/date cannot be changed once allotted by the Indian Navy. Call up Letters cum Admit Card for online examination indicating date, time and place, which are scheduled during Feb 20, would be required to be downloaded from the official website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in tentatively one week before online examination. Only Electronic mode of communication will be used while contacting the candidates at all stages of recruitment.
The original documents uploaded by the candidates during online filling of application viz original certificates, mark sheets, Domicile certificate and NCC certificate (if held) are to be brought by the candidates at all stages of recruitment (Written Examination, PFT and Final Enrollment Medical at INS Chilka). If the details provided in „online application‟ are not matching with original documents at any stage, the candidature will be cancelled.
Results of the online examination will be announced tentatively after 30 days. Approximately 8000 candidates will be called for PFT and Preliminary Recruitment Medical Examination. Allocation of centres for PFT and Preliminary Recruitment Medical Examination will be at the discretion of the Indian Navy. The qualifying cut off marks for appearing in PFT & Preliminary Recruitment Medical may vary from State to State for SSR entry.
Candidates who are qualified in PFT will undergo Preliminary Recruitment medical examination. Candidates declared Temporary Medically Unfit in the Preliminary Recruitment medicals can avail specialist review from the specified Military Hospital within a maximum period of 21 days. No further review/ appeal is permissible if declared unfit in the specialist review.
Candidates declared Permanent Medically unfit in the Preliminary recruitment medical can appeal for specialist opinion in a Military Hospital within 21 days after payment of Rs 40/- through www.joinindiannavy.gov.in website. Medical fitness certificate other than that of the specialist opinion in a Military Hospital will not be considered. No further review/ appeal is permissible.
The candidates who have passed in PFT and Preliminary Recruitment Medical Examination will only be considered for preparation of merit list. In case of candidates securing similar cut off marks in Computer Based Examination, the candidate with higher percentage in the qualifying examination i.e 10+2 will be selected for Final Enrolment Medicals at INS Chilka (The percentage will be calculated taking into consideration best of five subjects including Maths and Physics) as selected by the candidate in online application.
The merit list will be available on website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in on 26 Jun 20. All selected candidates will be called to INS Chilka for Final enrolment medicals. The selection of a candidate will stand cancelled and he will have no claim for enrolment in the Indian Navy in case the candidate fails to report on the date and time mentioned in call letter for final enrolment medical examination at INS Chilka. However, enrolment will be subject to Fitness in Final Enrolment Medical at INS Chilka.
The candidate‟s selection pertaining to a particular batch is valid for that batch only. Qualified candidates whose names do not appear in the merit list cannot claim admission for the next batch. These candidates will have to undergo the selection procedure afresh, provided they meet the eligibility criteria for the fresh batch.
All select listed candidates will be required to download Police Verification form and other associated forms along with the Call letter for Final Enrolment Medical Examination at INS Chilka. The candidates will be required to submit the same to INS Chilka after getting their antecedents verified on Police Verification form / Online police verification form from the Superintendent of Police of their respective jurisdiction. Candidate should be in possession of police verification from either place of domicile or place of residence. Candidates without the verified police verification reports or reports with adverse comments will not be eligible for enrolment. The format for the police verification form can also be downloaded from the website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in immediately after the declaration of select list, to ensure timely verification.
No enquiry will be entertained regarding this recruitment/ enrolment after a period of six months.
For this entry, the candidates can apply ONLINE ONLY on the official website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in from 08 Nov 19 to 18 Nov 19.
UPSC has published the merit list of NDA 1 2019 successful candidates. Total 447 candidates have cleared the NDA 1 2019 SSB interview. The list doesn’t contain the medical status of these candidates. The following is the list, in order of merit of 447 candidates, who have qualified on the basis of the results of the Written Examination held by the Union Public Service Commission on 21st April, 2019 and the subsequent Interviews held by the Services Selection Board, of the Ministry of Defence for admission to the Army, Navy and Air Force wings of National Defence Academy for the 143rd Course and Naval Academy for the 105th Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 2nd January 2020. For detailed information regarding the date of commencement of the above courses, please visit the websites of Ministry of Defence i.e., www.joinindianarmy.nic.in www.joinindiannavy.gov.in and www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in.
https://www.instagram.com/p/B4csB1ugfxS/
The results of Medical Examination have not been taken into account in preparing these lists. The candidature of all the candidates is provisional, subject to their submitting the requisite certificates in support of date of birth and educational qualifications etc. claimed by them directly to the Additional Directorate General of Recruiting, Adjutant General’s Branch, Integrated Headquarters, Ministry of Defence (Army), West Block No.III, Wing–I, R.K Puram, New Delhi -110066 wherever this has not already been done and NOT to UPSC.
The result is also available on the UPSC website at https://www.upsc.gov.in. However, marks of the candidates will be available on the website after 15 days from the date of declaration of final results.
Recently UPSC has published the CDS exam result and around 8000+ candidates cleared the CDS written exam, these candidates will be facing the SSB interview for their respective services they have applied for. Many aspirants want to know how many candidates clear the CDS written exam and how many of them go ahead and clear the SSB interview including the merit list. In this article we are going to cover such details as it is very important for the aspirants to understand the competition level in CDS exam.
How many candidates apply for the CDS exam?
So, starting with the number of cadidates who apply for the UPSC CDS exam. CDS exam is conducted two times every year by the UPSC for the defence aspirants who want to join the Army, Airforce and Navy as an officer. Every time around 5 lakh+ candidates apply for CDS exam, so in one year around 10 lakh+ candidates apply for the CDS exam.
Now coming to the curicual part, how many candidates actually clear the CDS exam? Looking at the previous CDS results, around 8000 to 9000 candidate only clear the CDS written exam. You can find the details on number of candidates cleared CDS exam from previous years.
Exam
No. of candidatesclear CDS written exam
CDS 2 2019
8120
CDS 1 2019
7953
CDS 2 2018
7650
CDS 1 2018
8261
CDS 2 2017
8692
CDS 1 2017
8548
How many candidates clear the CDS SSB Interview?
Clearing SSB interview is very challenging, not because of the tests conducted at the SSB but because of the low success rate. Out of 100 candidates only 5 – 6 candidates clear the SSB interview, not to forget the SSB Screening test i.e. OIR Test and PPDT, Stage-1 testing where 60% candidates fail. Now coming to how many candidates clear the CDS SSB interview, you may find the details below:
Exam
No. of candidatesclear CDS SSB interview
CDS 2 2019
yet to be conducted
CDS 1 2019
conducting
CDS 2 2018
295
CDS 1 2018
272
CDS 2 2017
419
CDS 1 2017
441
How many candidates clear CDS Merit List?
As we are observing since a few years, no one gets merit out through UPSC entry, if you clear the SSB interview and medical examination, there are 100% chances of you getting the joining instructions for the respective training academy.
Hope this analysis will help the CDS aspirants to understand the competition level and they can prepare better for their upcoming examination. If you want to download the study material for the defence exam and interview, do not forget to visit shop.ssbcrack.com
“Satisfaction lies in the effort, not in the attainment, full effort is full victory”- Mahatma Gandhi. Hello to all the dear aspirants out there, I am Anirudh Pattathil, and am here to share my experience of my back to back recommendations. I got recommended from 3 AFSB Gandhinagar for NDA 143 and 18 SSB Allahabad for TES 42. I attended my NDA interview as a fresher and the knowledge I knew about SSB were gained mainly from SSBCrack and a coaching institution in Coimbatore called Coimbatore Defence Academy. I believe they helped me prepare well for the SSB and gave me tips on how to clear it.
NDA EntryWe were told to report at 6 pm on 19 Aug at Patikashram bustand in Gandhinagar. I was all exited and had even arrived a day in advance. Then we were all taken to the board and we were taken into the Hall to fill up a few mandatory forms. After that they took us out for some light breakfast and then started allotment of chest numbers. I was given 88 as it was according to date of birth and I was one of the oldest freshers there. Then we had our screening.
1) SCREENING: We were now taken into the testing Hall and we had to do two sets of OIR’s. Both sets had 50 questions and they were a mix of verbal and non verbal. I was very confident about my replies and had answered all 100 questions. After this we were taken out and divided into two batches. I was in the second batch and these were divided to conduct PP&DT (Picture Perception and Discussion Test). We were taken in after the first batch were done with theirs and they explained what we had to do. Then they showed us a hazy picture and we had to write a picture based out of that. I had perceived two brothers sitting and discussing something with each other regarding the youngers job. My narration went well and I had a fabulous group discussion as well. Our group was organised and a common story was also reached. Then we were directed to go and have lunch. Soon after lunch, they called us out to announce the screened in candidates. Out of 117 who had reported 60 had been screened in! And I was one of them. Soon after this we moved in for document checking. And that’s where the biggest twist lies! They routed me back during document check. Turns out the 10th certificate is very important and since I studied in an international board they didn’t issue one. So now I had to go all the way back home to Palakkad, Kerala , obtain the document affidavit and then report back at Gandhinagar!! Imagine the way my heart sunk at that moment. With a heavy heart I returned a phase 1 routed back and was allotted 2 Sep as my new date for reporting. Since I had already undergone phase 1 I was now in no need to repeat that the next time.
2) Phase 2: I had by now obtained all documents and had again reported back. This time since I didn’t have to do screening I had to end up sitting staring at the sky for the longest period till the got screened in! And voila it was over. Now I was allotted chest number 68 and this time 79 had been screened in. All the documents were now perfect and they allowed me to carry on.
Psychology: To all of our surprise we were told that the psych tests would be held on the same day! What a shock. We had to give up our phones by 5 and by 6 had to report for the psych. Once we got in and were settled, the psychologist came in and briefed us about all the four tests: TAT: Thematic Apperception Test( basically story writing) WAT: Word Association Test (basically sentence making from a given word) SRT: Situation Reaction Test (basically what it sounds like) and SD: Self Description. After the briefing all tests took place back to back. I was confident of doing well and had done all 12 TAT, all 60 WAT and SRT, as well as giving a very convincing SD explaining both positives and negatives about me and how I could improve them. By the time this was over it was 9 and we ran for dinner as we were all famished. As soon as that was over we went over to the accommodation and rooms were allotted, and mine was Gajraj. We were also told of the schedule for the next few days. To my shock, I had nothing to do on the second day, just my interview on the third day and GTO tasks of my group, ” GAJRAJIANS” , on the fourth day. The fifth day would be normal conference like any other. The second day was a bust. I spent most of my time reading a book or playing basketball in the indoor court!
Interview: My interview was scheduled in the first allotted slot, that was at 8 in the morning. I woke up early, took a good shower and got well dressed and reported for the interview. I had a good session with the IO and it went on for about 1 hour with him asking about my family, friends, education and also aeroplanes and it’s principles. Since I had prepared I also was able to answer confidently. After that the day was basically again all but spent reading, yes we did go out but to get photostats done.
Group Testing: The GTO tasks to our surprise were conducted in one day. They conducted all the tasks within the afternoon and although we didn’t have Lecturette and group obstacle race, all the other items were conducted. My group was cooperative so Group Discussion and Group Planning Exercise went well. Progressive Group Task wasn’t up to standard but was good. Half Group Task was tackled with ease and so was Final Group Task. I was able to do 8 Individual Obstacles, and my Command Task was made challenging at every point I found a way through, he would make it tougher. After this tiring day, we decided to go to the nearby Akshardham temple. To our surprise the auto driver fit 10 of us into one auto, whose tire got punctured, and finally we did go there and arrive back.
Conference: The day was here, 6 Sep, and since I was 68 , had to wait a long time before being called for the conference. When I went he he just asked me why I felt the Air Force felt different to me? To which I gave an apt answer of saying it us be what normal civilians can’t be, fighter pilots! Then we were directed to lunch and to report back at testing Hall. We all assembled over and the duty GTO came over. He had results in hand and started reading out the chest numbers. Since he read it in a sequence, my number came last. He had announced my number!! Although I had a feeling I could make it, when you hear it from the it is a different experience. We got all the forms filled tht evening itself! Now we had to undergo CPSS but as it wasn’t there yet, I was sent to Mysore to attend it. Unfortunately I couldn’t clear it and hence my medicals were moved to Bhopal MH. ( for Navy)
TES Entry: This was scheduled the next day after my CPSS and so I had to rush there. It was held at Allahabad. I won’t bore you guys by going into too much detail and I’ll keep this entry details short. Since this was now my second entry I was a repeater. The OIR went as normal and my chest number was 219. The PP&DT went well also and even though it was a fish market we manged to try and reach a conclusion. Then I was screened in with chest number 21 out of 29. The procedures here were like normal and we got rest of that day of. The second day was psychology and went same as the previous attempt, was able to do all without any problems, and soon after had my interview slated. The interview was very brief with a few technical questions and wasn’t really that challenging. The next 2 days we had GTO, to the addition of what I had done earlier there was GOR and Lecturette which were exiting. After all this the final day, 21 Sep, we had our conference, and since there were only 29 members the conference got over fast. I hadn’t performed as well as I had in my NDA entry but I was yet able to make it. 4 out of 29 had been recommended from there for the TES entry. Now again as soon as this was over I had to travel to bhopal for my medicals. I reached Bhopal and my medicals went on well. I have been declared fit for navy and fit for army. All documentation has of now been completed and am eagerly awaiting the final merit list. My advice Is that you try and be yourself, try and enjoy your 5 days, make tons of friends, create memorable experiences and you’ll just see the magical hand of God working. Jai Hind!
The Indian Air Force has published that the Airmen final merit list on October 31, 2019 for the examination conducted during STAR and direct recruitment rallies. The airmen aspirant who have appeared for the STAR and recruitment rallies can check their merit and medical status in the links given below. The result consists of names of candidates who have made in PROVISIONAL SELECT LIST (PSL) and one who have failed to make it PROVISIONAL SELECT LIST (PSL) for group X and group Y.
UPSC CDS 2 2019 result has been published on 01 Nov 2019. On the basis of the results of the COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION (II), 2019 held by the Union Public Service Commission on 08th September, 2019, 8120 candidates with the following Roll Numbers have qualified for being interviewed by the Service Selection Board of the Ministry of Defence, for admission to (i) Indian Military Academy, Dehradun 149th (DE) Course commencing in July, 2020 (ii) Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala, Course commencing in July, 2020 (iii) Air Force Academy, Hyderabad (Pre-Flying) Training Course (208 F(P)) commencing in July, 2020 (iv) Officers Training Academy, Chennai 112th SSC (Men) Course (NT) commencing in October, 2020 and (v) Officers Training Academy, Chennai, 26th SSC Women (Non-Technical) Course commencing in October, 2020.
The candidature of all the candidates, whose Roll Numbers are shown in the lists below, is provisional. In accordance with the conditions of the admission to the examination, they are required to submit the original certificates in support of age (Date of Birth), educational qualifications, NCC (C) (Army Wing/Senior Division Air Wing/Naval Wing) etc. claimed by them to IHQ of MoD (Army), Rtg ‘A’, CDSE Entry, West Block-III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC as their first choice and Naval HQ “DMPR” (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy as their first choice, and PO3(A)/Air Headquarters, ‘J’ Block, Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110106 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by the following dates failing which their candidature will stand cancelled. The original Certificates are to be submitted not later than 01st July, 2020 for IMA & NA, not later than 13th May, 2020 for AFA and not later than 1st October, 2020 in case of SSC course only. The candidates must not send the original Certificates to the Union Public Service Commission.
Candidates who qualified in the written exam and given their first choice as Army (IMA/OTA) are required to register themselves on the recruiting directorate website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in in order to enable them to receive call up information for SSB interview. Those candidates who have already registered on the recruiting directorate website are advised not to register again.
The marks-sheet of candidates who have not qualified, will be available on the Commission’s website within 15 days from the date of publication of the final result of OTA (after conducting SSB Interview) and will remain available on the website for a period of 30 days.
If you have a dream to fly the fighter jets of the Indian Air Force, here is the golden opportunity for you. UPSC has published the notification of CDS 1 2020 on 30th Oct 2019 till 19th Nov 2019. Male graduates and final year students can apply for the Indian Air Force Academy, Hyderabad through CDS 1 2020 exam. You can join the flying branch of the Indian Air Force through CDS exam. In this article you will find the required details about this entry and how you can join the Indian Air Force Academy through CDS 1 2020.
CDS 1 2020 Vacancy
CDS Course
Total Vacancies
Indian Military Academy, Dehradun
100
Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala
45
Indian Air Force Academy, Hyderabad
32
Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Men)
225
Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Women)
16
CDS 1 2020: Important Dates
Events
Important Dates
CDS 1 2020 Notification Release Date
30th October 2019
CDS 1 2020 Online Application Start Date
30th October 2019
CDS 1 2020 Last date to Apply online
19th November 2019
CDS 1 2020 Exam Date
2nd February 2020
Important notes for CDS 1 2020 Indian Air Force Academy
Candidates who desire to join Air Force Academy must indicate AFA as first choice, as they have to be administered Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or and AF Medicals at Central Establishment/Institute of Aviation Medicines. Choice exercised for AFA as second/third etc. will be treated as invalid.
Candidates with Air Force as first and only choice cannot be considered as left-over for grant of SSC (OTA) if they fail in Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test. Such candidates, if they desire to be considered for SSC (OTA) should exercise their option for OTA also.
Indian Air Force Academy Pictures
CDS 1 2020 Vacancy
CDS Course
Total Vacancies
Indian Military Academy, Dehradun
100
Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala
45
Indian Air Force Academy, Hyderabad
32
Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Men)
225
Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Women)
16
For Air Force Academy Age Limit for CDS 1 2020: 20 to 24 years as on 1st January, 2021 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January, 1997 and not later than 1st January, 2001 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January, 1995 and not later than 1st January, 2001) only are eligible. Note: Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the premises.
Pay scale of Army Officers and equivalent ranks in Air Force and Navy
CDS Exam for Male and Female
Academy
Gender
Status
Indian Military Academy
Male
Unmarried
Indian Naval Academy
Male
Unmarried
Indian Air Force Academy
Male
Unmarried
Officer Training Academy
Male
Unmarried
Officer Training Academy
Female
Unmarried
Aspirants can apply for UPSC CDS 1 2020 exam from 30 Oct 2019 onwards. The last date for submitting the CDS 1 2020 online application is 19th November 2019. Follow the general instructions for CDS 1 2020 online application below:
Visit official site upsconline.nic.in/ and Click “ONLINE APPLICATION FOR VARIOUS EXAMINATIONS OF UPSC“.
In the Page click on column “Click Here for PART I भाग- I के लिए यहां क्लिक करें” against Combined Defence Services Examination (II)
Under the section of PART I read the instruction carefully and in the Bottom click on Yes / हां.
Now the Application form will be appeared, fill your personal and contact details.
Select the preference for the academies as per age & qualification.
Now continue to next step. The Registration ID would be generated.
The candidates should then head to “Part II” of the application form.
Next step is to deposit the fee of ₹ 200/-.
Once the fee payment is done, select the desired examination centre.
Upload a scanned copy of the photograph and signature as per the file size & dimensions specified in the official notification.
Click to “Submit”.
Print/ Download the application form for future use.
CDS 1 2020 Application Fee
The fees for the CDS application form is ₹ 200/-
SC/ST/Females are exempted from fee payment.
The payment submission is available in both offline and online mode.
The payment can be done via Net Banking, Mastercard/Debit Card or cash deposit in any branch of SBI Bank.
CDS Exam is also known as the Combined Defence Services Examination, one of the most popular defence exams in the country and it is conducted by UPSC twice every year. As the name suggests, it is a combined exam for Army, Navy, and Air force. Male candidates can join the Army, Navy, and Air force through IMA, OTA, INA, and AFA respectively. Women candidates can only apply for the Indian Army through the CDS exam and join the OTA Chennai.
Many aspirants are looking forward to the CDS 1 2022 Notification and Exam Date, in this article we are going to share the tentative dates and some important things which are important for both male and female CDS Aspirants who are preparing for the CDS 2022 Examination.
CDS 2 2021Notification is going to be published by Union Public Service Commission on 22 December 2021 as per the UPSC Examination calendar. Candidates who are interested to apply for the UPSC CDS I 2022 notification can apply at upsc.gov.in and upsconline.nic.in once the notification is active. UPSC conducts the CDS exam twice a year and this is one of the most popular defence exams among the aspirants who are willing to join as an Officer in the Indian Army, Navy, Air Force, and Officers Training Academies. SSBCrackExams takes the initiative and helps the youngsters to know the CDS Exam 2022 eligibility criteria, exam dates, selection, etc., If you are planning to write the CDS 1 2022 Exam, you can read the following details below. A short summary of eligibility criteria for the CDS 1 2022 Exam is given below:
CDS 1 2022 Important Dates: UPSC will publish the CDS 1 2022 notification and important dates. Let’s have a look at the tentative schedule for CDS 1 2022 exam.
CDS 1 2022 EVENTS
DATES
CDS 1 2022 Application Start Date
22 December 2021
CDS 1 2022 Application Last Date
11 January 2022
CDS 1 2022 Exam Date
10 April 2022 (SUNDAY)
CDS 1 2022 Admit Card Download Date
Before 3 weeks of exam
CDS 1 2022 Result Date (Expected)
Mar – April 2022
CDS 1 2022 Eligibility Conditions: Now we will be going through the eligibility conditions of CDS 1 2022 Notification, here we can get the maximum knowledge about the notification issued by UPSC and we can know the new amendments and updations done by UPSC it might be in syllabus, exam pattern, recruitment stages.
CDS 1 2022 Educational Qualifications: Candidates should be well known with the education qualifications before applying the examination. Here we brought the complete details of the educational qualifications required for CDS 1 2022 Notification.
ACADEMY
EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION
INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY
Graduation Degree
INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY
B.E/B.Tech (10+2 with Physics & Maths)
AIR FORCE ACADEMY
Graduation, B.E/B.Tech (10+2 with Physics &Maths)
OFFICERS’ TRAINING ACADEMY (MEN)
Graduation Degree
OFFICERS’ TRAINING ACADEMY (WOMEN)
Graduation Degree
CDS 1 2022 Age limit: As compared to educational qualification age limits also play a vital role in the CDS 1 2022 notification because UPSC has kept some cut-off dates for the eligibility. So before applying to try to go through the full notification provided by UPSC.
ACADEMY
AGE LIMIT
BORN BETWEEN
INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY
19-24
02 Jan 1999 to 01 Jan 2004
INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY
19-24
02 Jan 1999 to 01 Jan 2004
AIR FORCE ACADEMY
20-24
02 Jan 1999 to 01 Jan 2003
OFFICERS’ TRAINING ACADEMY (MEN)
19-25
02 Jan 1998 to 01 Jan 2004
OFFICERS’ TRAINING ACADEMY (WOMEN)
19-25
02 Jan 1998 to 01 Jan 2004
CDS 1 2022 Selection Procedure: CDS follows a three-stage recruitment process it consists of:
Written Test
SSB Interview
Medical Examination
Merit List
CDS 1 2022 Examination Pattern: UPSC follows a standard and very transparent manner to conduct the CDS 1 2022 examination. The written examination consists of the below subjects:
A) For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, and Air Force Academy:
SUBJECT
DURATION
MAX. MARKS
ENGLISH
2 HOURS
100 M
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
2 HOURS
100 M
ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS
2 HOURS
100 M
B) For Admission to Officers’ Training Academy:
SUBJECT
DURATION
MAX. MARKS
ENGLISH
2 HOURS
100 M
GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
2 HOURS
100 M
CDS 1 2022 SSB Interview 2022 involves 2 stages:
Stage 1 consists of officer intelligence rating, picture perception, and description test.
Stage 2 involves interview, group testing officer task, psychology test, and conference
CDS 1 2022 How to Apply:
Visit the official website — upsc.gov.in or upsconline.nic.in
Click on the UPSC CDSE 1 2022 link
In part – I of the registration, submit your basic information.
In part II, fill the payment details and choice of exam center, upload your photo and sign as per guidelines
Save and submit it and take a print out for further reference
CDS 1 2022 NOTIFICATION OTHER IMPORTANT DETAILS:
Application fee: Rs 200/- SC, ST and women candidates are exempted from application fee
Examination Centers: UPSC CDS 1 2022 exam will be held in 40+ CDS Exam Centers across India.
Cut Off: Students who score more than the cut-off are considered for SSB interview. Cut Off will be declared by the board based on the applications received and candidates qualified in the first stage of the recruitment process. Now we will look into the expected cut off marks for all the academies.