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Weekly Defence Current Affairs Digest: 5 Aug – 11 Aug 2018

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Weekly Digest Cover

In this weekly digest, we cover 13 important topics in the Indian defence from 5 Aug – 11 Aug 2018:

  1. Indo – Thailand Joint Exercise Maitree 2018

  • Exercise Maitree is being held between the Indian Army and Royal Thai Army from 06 to 19 August 2018 in Thailand. It is a platoon level exercise which comprises of infantry component. The opening ceremony started with the familiarization of organisation and display of weapons & equipment of both armies.
  • The exercise will emphasize to hone the tactical and technical skills in joint counter insurgency and counter-terrorist operations in the rural and urban scenario under UN mandate.
  • Due emphasis will be laid on increasing interoperability between forces from both countries which is crucial for the success of any joint operation. Both sides will jointly train, plan and execute a series of well-developed tactical drills for neutralization of likely threats that may be encountered in urban warfare scenario. Experts from both sides will also hold detailed discussions to share their experience on varied topics for mutual benefit.

    Indo - Thailand Joint Exercise Maitree 2018
    Indo – Thailand Joint Exercise Maitree 2018
  • Exercise Maitree will contribute immensely in developing mutual understanding and bonhomie between the two armies in order to counter terrorism.
  1. The budget for DRDO made public

  • The total Budget of Department of Defence Research & Development (R&D) for the Financial Year 2018-19 is Rs. 17861.19 crore with a manpower of approximately 24224 (including 7354 scientists).
  • A total of 13 research projects in Technology Development (TD) and Science & Technology (S&T) category have been taken up in the year 2018-19 in the broad areas of hybrid power system, advanced materials, CBW Defence technologies, laser diode technology, technologies for insensitive munition etc. and since these are in the design phase, outcome of research projects will be seen in the subsequent years.
  1. Indigenous Manufacturing of Defence Equipments

  • Capital procurement of defence equipment is undertaken from various domestic as well as foreign vendors as per extant Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP), based on threat perception, operational challenges and technological changes and to keep the Army in a state of readiness to meet the entire spectrum of security challenges.
  • DPP focuses on institutionalising, streamlining, and simplifying defence procurement procedure to give a boost to ‘Make in India’ initiative of the Government of India, by promoting indigenous design, development and manufacturing of defence equipment, platforms, systems and sub-systems.
  1. Infiltration across LoC and IB in J&K border Decreases

  • Indian Army & Border Security Force have adopted a robust counter infiltration strategy which has an appropriate mix of technology and human resource to check infiltration effectively.
  • Innovative troop deployment, proactive use of surveillance and monitoring devices and the Anti-Infiltration Obstacle System have enhanced the ability to detect and intercept terrorists attempting to infiltrate/exfiltrate.
  • Issues of infiltration / suspicious activity close to the border are taken up regularly with Pakistan authorities at appropriate level through the established mechanism of hotlines, flag meetings as well as talks between the Director General of Military Operations of the two countries. BSF, too, holds regular talks at various levels with its counterpart viz. Pakistan Rangers.
  • In June 2018, Number of CFVs on Line of Control (LoC) were 19 and Number of Cross-Border Firing on International Border (IB) were 39. In July 2018, they were reduced to 13 and 0 respectively.
  1. UPSC Relaxes age for Defence personnel appearing in Civil Services

  • For appointment to any vacancy in Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ services or posts filled by direct recruitment otherwise than on the result of an Open All India Competitive Examination, the upper age limit of Ex-servicemen shall be relaxed by the length of military service increased by three years in the case of ex-servicemen and Commissioned Officers including Emergency Commissioned Officers or Short Service Commissioned Officers.
  • For appointment to any vacancy in Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ services or posts filled by direct recruitment on the result of an All India Competitive Examination, the ex-servicemen and Commissioned Officers including Emergency Commissioned Officers or Short Service Commissioned Officers who have rendered at least five years military service and have been released (i) on completion of assignment (including those whose assignment is due to be completed within one year otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency; or (ii) on account of physical disability attributable to military service or on invalidment, shall be allowed maximum relaxation of five years in the upper age limit.
  1. Dependence on Foreign Weapons Shifted Due to Indigenisation

  • Capital procurement of defence equipment is undertaken from various domestic as well as foreign vendors, based on operational requirements of the Armed Forces, the availability or capacity to produce the equipment in India and abroad to keep the Armed Forces in a state of readiness to meet the entire spectrum of security challenges.
  • During the last three years and current year (up to June, 2018) out of total 168 contracts, 106 contracts have been signed with Indian vendors for procurement of defence equipment for Armed Forces such as Helicopters, Radar, Ballistic Helmets, Artillery Guns, Simulators, Missiles, Bullet Proof Jackets, Electronic Fuzes and ammunition.
  1. Conversion of cantonments into “Exclusive Military Stations”

  • There are 62 Cantonments, governed by the Cantonments Act, 2006, located in 19 States with a population of about 20.76 lakhs.
  • Cantonments have and continue to play an important role in the delivery of services to the inhabitants residing in the cantonments.
  • Apart from carrying out municipal functions like sanitation, running of STPs, street lighting, drainage, etc., they also undertake numerous developmental activities.
  • Cantonments with a 250-year history are important institutions that bear testimony to the harmonious co-existence of civilians and defence personnel.
  • The Army has suggested excision of civil areas of Cantonments and converting military pockets into Military Stations. No decision has been taken in the matter yet.
  1. New Defence Production Policy Prepared

  • In the Budget Speech 2018, Government has announced that it will bring out an industry-friendly Defence Production Policy 2018 to promote domestic production by public sector, the private sector and micro, small and medium enterprises (MSMEs).
  • Consequent to this, a draft Defence Production Policy 2018 has been prepared which provides a focused, structured and significant thrust to development of defence design and production capabilities in the country.
  • The draft policy has been shared with all concerned stakeholders for their views before notification.
  1. Joint cycling cum Trekking expedition by Indian Army & Royal Bhutan Army

  • A joint Cycling cum Trekking Expedition of Indian Army and Royal Bhutan Army was conducted to commemorate “Fifty years of Establishment of Diplomatic Relations between India and Bhutan”.
  • The expedition began on 31 July from Haa Dzong in Bhutan and was flagged-in at Thimpu on 07 August 2018.
  • A total of seventeen personnel of both armies participated in the expedition which covered a total of 384 km of the distance across challenging mountainous terrain in both India and Bhutan.

    Joint cycling cum Trekking expedition by Indian Army & Royal Bhutan Army
    Joint cycling cum Trekking expedition by Indian Army & Royal Bhutan Army
  • The expedition team passed through Binnaguri in India during the final phase of the expedition.
  • The expedition has furthered the strong bonds of bonhomie between the two armies, adding yet another glorious moment in the relations between the two nations.
  1. HADR operations launched by IAF in Kerala

  • IAF had responded immediately to the Kerala flood crisis and is extending all possible assistance to the people affected by landslides and floods in Kerala through Humanitarian Assistance Disaster Relief (HADR) missions.
  • Five An-32 transport aircraft were deployed to transport NDRF teams and their equipment from Arakkonam to Calicut on 09 Aug 18.
  • In addition, two NDRF teams from Vijayawada and two teams of Army Engineering Group from Bangalore & Hyderabad have been transported to Calicut.
  • Two Mi-17 V5 helicopters and one Advance Light Helicopter (ALH) has been pressed into service for distribution of relief material and winching operations.
  • On 09 Aug 18, three persons were winched to safety by IAF helicopters and 300 Kg of relief material was dropped for flood-affected people. These helicopters continue to be deployed for relief and rescue operations even now and are being tasked as requested by the state administration.
  • The IAF will continue to provide HADR till the situation is normalized.
  1. Operation ‘Madad’ by Southern Naval Command Launched

  • Operation “Madad” has been launched by the Southern Naval Command (SNC) at Kochi since 09 Aug 2018 for assisting the state administration and undertaking disaster relief operations due to the unprecedented flooding experienced in many parts of Kerala, owing to incessant rainfall and release of excess water from Idukki and other dams.
  • Based on a request received from Deputy Collector, Wayanad, one diving team with Gemini inflatable boat was airlifted and sent to Kalpetta at 10:00 pm on 09 Aug to undertake rescue operations due to floods and landslides.
  1. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan car cum bike rally flagged off by WAC

  • A Car cum Bike Rally from New Delhi to Thoise via Manali-Leh was flagged off by Air Marshal NJS Dhillon AVSM, Senior Air Staff Officer, HQ Western Air Command New Delhi on 10 Aug 18.
  • The objective of the Rally is to promote Prime Minister’s noble mission of ‘Swachh Bharat Abhiyan’.The Rally aims at spreading awareness amongst tourists and locals to maintain cleanliness in mountains and make them garbage free zones.
  • The rally team consisting of 12 Air warriors is headed by Air Vice Marshal AK Singh AVSM VSM, Senior Officer-in-charge Administration, HQ WAC. In a span of next 15 days, the team will traverse through Ambala, Manali, Jispa, Pang, Leh, Pangong Tso, Thoise en route to its final destination at Base Camp. The rally will culminate in Delhi on 24 Aug 18.

    Swachh Bharat Abhiyan car cum bike rally flag-off
    Swachh Bharat Abhiyan car cum bike rally flag-off
  • During its journey, the team will interact with the locals and tourists to highlight the importance of cleanliness and the need to protect the environment.
  • They will also spread awareness about ‘Swachhta’ by distributing pamphlets, installing banners and placing dustbins at prominent tourist destinations en-route. The team plans to collect garbage for further disposal of the same at designated places. It is also planned to carry out ‘Swachhta’campaign at Leh city and Thoise in order to make the general public aware of the Mission.

    Swachh Bharat Abhiyan car cum bike rally team
    Swachh Bharat Abhiyan car cum bike rally team
  1. Curtain Raiser: Exercise SCO Peace Mission 2018

  • As part of the Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) initiatives, SCO Peace Mission Exercise is conducted biennially for SCO member states. The joint exercise for the year 2018 will be conducted by Central Military Commission of Russia from 22 August to 29 August 2018 at Chebarkul, Chelyabinsk, Russia.
  • This will be a historic occasion due to the maiden participation of India post becoming a full member of the SCO in June 2017.
  • This exercise marks a major milestone in the multilateral relations of SCO member nations. The exercise will involve tactical level operations in an international counter-insurgency or counter-terrorism environment under SCO Charter.

Join Indian Military Academy 2022 [APPLY NOW]

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Join Indian Military Academy

Candidates who are preparing for the various defence exams and SSB interview to join the IMA – Indian Military Academy Dehradun can get more details on various entries to join The IMA Dehradun in this article. Candidates who are interested to join the Indian Military Academy Dehradun after graduation can apply for the latest UPSC TGC and CDS 2020 notification, also we have given the details of other entries through which you can join the IMA like CDS 1 2020, CDS 2 2020, TGC 131, TGC 132  etc. Through these entries, candidates can join the Indian Army as an officer. Below we have mentioned the important details related to CDS 1 2019 notification, application, age limit, eligibility, cut off marks, exams, fee details, admit card and ssb dates. Also, we request CDS aspirants to read the official notification linked below for complete and correct details. CDS Exam is conducted by UPSC two times every year, it is a pen paper based test and has three different papers. Paper 1 is of English and Paper 2 of General Awareness and Paper 3 – Mathematics (not for OTA).

CDS 2 2020 EVENTSDATES
CDS 2 2020 Application Start Date05 Aug 2020
CDS 2 2020 Application Last Date25 Aug 2020
CDS 2 2020 Exam Date08 Nov 2020
CDS 2 2020 Admit Card Download DateBefore 3 weeks of exam
CDS 2 2020 Result Date (Expected)Announced Soon
ssbinterviewbook
ACADEMYEDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATION
INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMYGraduation Degree
INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMYB.E/B.Tech (10+2 with Physics & Maths)
AIR FORCE ACADEMYGraduation, B.E/B.Tech (10+2 with Physics &Maths)
OFFICERS’ TRAINING ACADEMY (MEN)Graduation Degree
OFFICERS’ TRAINING ACADEMY (WOMEN)Graduation Degree

Latest Notifications

Here are the details of CDS 1 2020 notification candidates can check below, if you are planning to write CDS 1 2020 exam can read the following details below: CDS 1 2020 Exam Date, Age Limit, Application Form, Exam Pattern, Cut Off.

The Indian armed forces always give the fair chances to the students. Starting from the age of maturity, they start with the NDA, TES and ends up to the T.A. examination. CDS is also a chance provided to the graduate candidates. UPSC conducts the exam and gives the chance to the candidates to join any of the three services as per their eligibility. A short summary of eligibility criteria for CDS 2 2019 is given below.

CDS 1 2020 Age, Exam Date, Notification, Result and SSB Date

CDS 1 2020 EVENTSDATES
CDS 1 2020 Application Start Date30 Oct 2019
CDS 1 2020 Application Last Date19 Nov 2019
CDS 1 2020 Exam Date02 Feb 2020
CDS 1 2020 Admit Card Download DateBefore 3 weeks of exam
CDS 1 2020 Result Date (Expected)Announced Soon
join indian military academy
Indian Military Academy

Indian Military Academy (IMA) is a premier Army Training institution imparting training to potential regular Officers of our Army. The Academy boasts of a glorious and colorful history. Its dynamic curriculum and valiant traditions are not only the integral part of the Nation’s proud heritage but also forms an indispensable sheet anchor of India’s National security. The Indian Military Academy is no soft option to glamour and heraldry. It is an austere institution imparting rigorous training in leadership, self-discipline and act of war. It is the core Academy for grooming the next generation of military leaders and sets the benchmark for the Indian Army.

Its overall capacity, dynamic curriculum and martial traditions have consistently attracted the best Gentlemen Cadets from home and abroad. The contribution of the Academy to our Military heritage and Nation-building has been immense. To a proud Nation, the Indian Military Academy is an epitome for nurturing ethical conduct, patriotism, selfless service and respect for Indian values.

About CDS 1 2020 Exam

CDS Exam is also known as Combined Defence Services Examination is conducted by UPSC two times every year. CDS is one of the most famous defence exam through which you can join the Indian Army, Navy and Airforce as an officer. Aspirants who are studying in final year of their graduation or completed their graduation can apply for the CDS exam through UPSC online. Through CDS exam you can join Indian Military Academy, Officers Training Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Airforce Academy. You can find more details on CDS 1 2020 examination below.

Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2020

CDS 1 2020 EVENTSDATES
CDS 1 2020 Application Start Date30 Oct 2019
CDS 1 2020 Application Last Date19 Nov 2019
CDS 1 2020 Exam Date02 Feb 2020
CDS 1 2020 Admit Card Download DateBefore 3 weeks of exam
CDS 1 2020 Result Date (Expected)Announced Soon

Indian Military Academy For Final Year Student?

  • Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have  yet to pass the final year degree examination can also apply provided candidate should not have any present backlog up to the last semester/year for which results have been declared up to the time of submission of application and they will be required to submit proof of passing the degree examination at the time of commencement of course. If you are applying for IMA through CDS 1 2020 you need to provide degree certificate on or before 1st Jan 2020.
Indian Military Academy Cadets
Indian Military Academy Cadets

CDS Exam Indian Military Academy Exam Pattern

Question Paper Maximum Marks Duration
English 100 2 Hours
Mathematics 100 2 Hours
General Knowledge (GK) 100 2 Hours

Indian Military Academy Exam Syllabus

Question Paper  Topics
Mathematics Number System, Unitary method compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation, Elementary Number Theory. H.C.F. and L.C.M, Euclidean algorithm, Logarithms, Algebra, trigonometry, geometry, areas, menstruation and statistics
GK Current Affairs, Static GK, General science, Civics, Physics, Chemistry, History, Geography
English Basic grammar topics, comprehension, synonyms, antonyms, Para jumbles and error spotting.

Indian Military Academy Selection Procedure

Aspirants can apply for CDS exam to join the Indian Military Academy and they can also go through TGC entry. In case of CDS exam, aspirant needs to pass the CDS written exam successfully. List of successful candidates who have cleared the CDS written exam will be upblished by the UPSC. All the candidates who have cleared the CDS written exam will be registering to join indian army website for their SSB interview date and once the SSB date selection is live, they can select their SSB interview date. If you are applying thorough TGC entry, there won’t be any written exam and candidates will be shortlisted for SSB interview based on their Engineering percentage.

  • CDS written exam will be conducted.
  • Candidates who will clear the CDS written exam will be called for 5 Day SSB Interview.
  • Candidates will be allocated with SSB dates and Venue, same will be informed after the declaration of the result.
  • Candidates who clear the 5 Day SSB interview procedure will be going for a week-long medical examination.
  • UPSC will publish the merit list of successful candidates.
  • Candidates will get the join instructions of their respective academy based on the order of merit.
  • To know more about 5 Day SSB interview get the books “Let’s Crack SSB interview” and “Breaking the Code of SSB Psychology

Read : Official CDS 1 2020 Notification PDF – SSBCrack

Indian Army TGC 131 Recruitment 2019 Notification. Indian army is soon going to publish the notification TGC 131 also known as Technical Graduate Course 131 for male engineering graduates to join the Indian Army. Male engineering graduates who are studying in the final year or completed the engineering can apply for TGC 131 entry. The online registrations for TGC 131 will be open on 22 Oct 2019 until 20 Nov 2019.  Technical Graduate Course 131 applications are invited from married/unmarried MALE Engineering Graduates for 129th Technical Graduates Course (commencing in July 2020 at Indian Military Academy (IMA), Dehradun).

Read : Official TGC 131 Notification PDF – SSBCrack

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Sports GK Current Affairs Questions For CDS NDA AFCAT Defence Exams

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cds afcat nda sports gk questions

Sports General Knowledge and Current Affairs eBook contains detailed explanation, facts, data and GK questions and answers on Sports, in this ebook you will find easy to remember data based on sports and MCQs related to Sports and Games which you may face in exams like  UPSC IAS, IPS, IES, IFS, CDS, NDA, AFCAT, State-PSC, SSC, Railways and other competitive examinations. Important 150+ Sports GK Current Affairs Questions AFCAT 2018 CDS 2018 NDA 2018. Read the important sports GK and Current Affairs questions for AFCAT 2 2018, CDS 2 2018 and NDA 2 2018.

Sports GK Current Affairs Questions For CDS NDA AFCAT Defence Exams

 

Contains:

  • Major Sports Events
  • Facts about Olympic Games
  • Indian Medal Winners at the Olympic Games
  • Indian Hockey Medals at the Olympic Games
  • First in Sports – India
  • First in Sports – World
  • Stadiums in India
  • Crickets Stadiums in the World
  • Sports Awards
  • BCCI Awards
  • All India Football Federation Awards
  • Tennis Important Facts
  • Tennis Important Cups and Trophies
  • Most Men’s/Women’s Grand Slam Titles
  • Most Australian Open Singles Titles
  • Most French Open Singles Titles
  • Most Wimbledon Singles Titles
  • Most US Open Singles Titles
  • Most total singles/doubles titles in the Open era
  • Cricket Highest Career Total Runs
  • Cricket Highest Individual Scores
  • Cricket Most Wickets
  • Cricket Most Centuries
  • Sports Important Cups and Trophies
  • Number of Players in Each Team
  • Sports Field Measurements
  • Sports Organisations of the World
  • List of international sports events held in India
  • Indian Hockey Medals
  • Terms Used – Sports and Games
  • Notable Sports Personalities of India 2018
  • Sports General Awareness Questions and Answers
  • Major Sports Events to Remember 2017 – 2018
  • List of IPL Winners
  • IPL 2018 Questions and Answers
  • FIFA World Cup 2018 Current Affairs
  • FIFA World Cup 2018 Questions and Answers
  • Sports Current Affairs Questions

Download Sports GK eBook PDF

Sports GK and Current Affairs EBook SSBCrack
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Major Sports Events to Remember 2017 – 2018

  • P V Sindhu wins silver World Championships 2018 of Badminton. Ace Indian shuttler P V Sindhu finished second best winning silver medal at World Championships 2018 of Badminton in women’s singles category held at Nanjing, China. It makes Sindhu only Indian to have four world championships podium finishes. Earlier she had won two bronze medals at 2013 (Guangzhou) and 2014 (Copenhagen) editions.
  • Tokyo 2020 committee officially launches Olympic mascots. The name of the blue-checked Olympic mascot ‘Miraitowa’ is derived from a combination of the Japanese words for future and eternity and seeks to “promote a future full of eternal hope in the hearts of people all over the world”.
  • The 2018 Wimbledon Championships was a tennis tournament held from2 July to 15 July 2018. It was the 132nd edition of the championships and 51st edition in the Open Era. The tournament was held at the All England Lawn Tennis and Croquet Club in Wimbledon, London, United Kingdom.
  • Government selects 734 athletes for Khelo-India scholarships. Sports Authority of India (SAI) under Union Ministry of Sports and Youth Affairs has cleared 734 athletes for the scholarship under the Khelo India Talent Development Scheme. They were selected High Powered Committee of SAI. Through this programme, the athletes will get training at government-accredited residential academies. They will be provided with annual stipend of Rs. 1,20,000 on quarterly basis to meet their out of pocket expenses, treatment of injuries and other expenses.
  • Sports Authority of India shortlists 734 youngsters for KHELO INDIA scholarship programme. The scholarship programme is designed to take care of expenses of the players including training, development, boarding and lodging and tournament exposure apart from the expense allowance.
  • Neeraj Chopra clinches gold at French Athletics meet. India’s star javelin thrower Neeraj Chopra won the gold medal at the Sotteville Athletics meet in France on July 17, 2018. The competitive field also included the 2012 London Olympics gold-medalist Keshorn Walcott of Trinidad and Tobago, who could only manage to throw78.26m, finishing at the fifth position.
  • France crowned World Champions after 20 years, Croatia’s Luka Modric wins Golden Ball. The 2018 FIFA World Cup ended with France being crowned the world champions. The French team with 4-2 scorecard triumphed over Croatia, in one of the highest-scoring finals ever. The win comes for France, 20 years after they claimed their first FIFA title- in 1998.
  • Hima Das becomes first Indian woman to win gold in World Junior Athletics. Indian sprinter Hima Das has scripted history by becoming the first Indian woman athlete to win a gold medal in the women’s 400m final race at the IAAF World Under-20 Athletics Championships, held in Tampere, Finland.
  • Dipa Karmakar becomes first Indian to win gold at Gymnastics World Cup. Dipa Karmakar has scripted history by becoming the first Indian gymnast to win a gold medal in the vault event of the FIG Artistic Gymnastics World Challenge Cup at Mersin, Turkey. The win comes as Karmakar returned to action after a long layoff of almost two years due to a knee injury.
  • Rahul Dravid, Ricky Ponting inducted into ICC Hall of Fame. Former Indian captain Rahul Dravid, former Australian captain Ricky Ponting and former England Women’s wicket-keeper Claire Taylor have been inducted by the ICC into the Cricket Hall of Fame. With the move, Dravid became the fifth Indian player to be named in the Hall of Fame.
  • Sports ministry approves upward revision of pension to meritorious sportspersons. Minister of Youth Affairs and Sports Rajyavardhan Rathore has approved the upward revision of pension to meritorious sportspersons. Under the revised rates, the rate of pension has been doubled off the existing rate of pension on winning medals in international sports events.
  • Mithali Raj becomes first Indian to score 2,000 runs in T20 International. Mithali Raj has become the first Indian cricketer to score 2,000 runs in T20 Internationals. She achieved the feat during India’s seven-wicket win over Sri Lanka in the Women’s Asia Cup T20 at Kaula Lumpur.
  • National Sports University Ordinance, 2018 comes into force. The National Sports University Ordinance, 2018 has come into force after it received Indian President Ram Nath Kovind’s assent. The approval of the ordinance will pave way for the set up of the country’s first National Sports University with headquarters at Manipur.
  • BCCI, UN Environment sign agreement to promote ‘green’ Cricket in India. The BCCI and United Nations Environment have signed an agreement to promote ‘green cricket’ in India. The partnership will focus on phasing out single-use plastic across stadiums in the country.cds afcat nda sports gk questions

IPL 2018 Questions and Answers

Q1. Which of the following team has won the 11th edition of Indian Premier League (IPL) after defeating Sunrisers Hyderabad by 8 wickets?

(a) Sunrisers Hyderabad

(b) Kolkata Knight Riders

(c) Rajasthan Royals

(d) Chennai Super Kings

(e) Delhi Daredevils

Ans.(d)

Sol. It has been the season full of ups and downs for the 11th edition of Indian Premier League (IPL) 2018. Chennai Super Kings beat Sunrisers Hyderabad by 8 wickets in the final of the 2018 Indian Premier League at the Wankhede Stadium in Mumbai.

Q2. Which among the following teams had collectively won the most number of Indian Premier League titles since 2008?

(a) Chennai Super Kings and Kolkata Knight Riders

(b) Chennai Super Kings and Mumbai Indians

(c) Chennai Super Kings and Royal Challengers Bengaluru

(d) Chennai Super Kings and Rajasthan Royals

(e) Chennai Super Kings and Delhi Daredevils

Ans.(b)

Sol. Chennai Super Kings equaled Mumbai Indians’ record for winning the most number of Indian Premier League titles.

Q3. Name the player who was awarded the Orange Cap (Most Runs) in IPL 2018.

(a) Shane Watson

(b) Lokesh Rahul

(c) Kane Williamson

(d) Rishabh Pant

(e) Ambati Rayadu

Ans.(c)

Sol. Kane Williamson, captain of Sunrisers Hyderabad, was awarded the Orange Cap (Most Runs)in IPL 2018.

Q4. The Fairplay Award for IPL 2018 was given to which of the following team?

(a) Mumbai Indians

(b) Kings XI Punjab

(c) Chennai Super Kings

(d) Delhi Daredevil

(e) Rajasthan Royals

Ans.(a)

Sol. The Fairplay Award for IPL 2018 was given to Mumbai Indians.

Q5. Name the player who was awarded the Purple Cap (Most Wickets) in IPL 2018.

(a) Rashid Khan

(b) Bhuvaneshwar Kumar

(c) Hardik Pandya

(d) Andrew Tye

(e) Umesh Yadav

Ans.(d)

Sol. Andrew Tye, the fast bowler of Kings XI Punjab, was awarded the Purple Cap (Most Wickets)in IPL 2018.

Q6. Which of the following two IPL teams were involved in the match-fixing scandal in 2013 and were banned for playing for 2 years?

(a) Rajasthan Royals and Deccan Chargers

(b) Deccan Chargers and Chennai Super Kings

(c) Rajasthan Royals and Chennai Super Kings

(d) Delhi Daredevils and Chennai Super Kings

(e) Rajasthan Royals and Pune Warriors

Ans.(c)

Sol. Rajasthan Royals and Chennai Super Kings were the two IPL teams were involved in the match-fixing scandal in 2013 and were banned for playing for 2 years.

Q7. Name the stylish batsman/bowler who was awarded as Emerging Player of IPL 2018.

(a) Rashid Khan

(b) Virat Kohli

(c) Andrew Tye

(d) Prithvi Shaw

(e) Rishabh Pant

Ans.(e)

Sol. Rishabh Pant, the stylish batsman of Delhi Daredevil team was awarded as Emerging Player of IPL 2018.

FIFA World Cup 2018 Questions and Answers

Q1. The 21st edition of the FIFA World Cup concluded in the Russian capital of Moscow. Which of the following country has emerged as the champion team of the FIFA World Cup 2018?  

(a) England

(b) France

(c) Belgium

(d) Brazil

(e) Croatia
Ans.(b)
Sol. The 21st edition of the FIFA World Cup concluded in Luzhniki Stadium in the Russian capital of Moscow. 32 nations, divided into eight groups, battled it out for the coveted trophy in the quadrennial month-long event. France emerged as the champion team of the FIFA World Cup 2018.

Q2. What was the Prize money for the champion team of FIFA World Cup 2018?  

(a) 15 million USD

(b) 20 million USD

(c) 26 million USD

(d) 38 million USD

(e) 42 million USD
Ans.(d)
Sol.  The Prize money for the FIFA World Cup 2018 champion team was 38 million US Dollars.

Q3. Name the player and his country who won the Golden Ball Award 2018 for the World Cup’s Best Player.

(a) Eden Hazard, Belgium

(b) Toni Kroos, Germany

(c) Luka Modric, Croatia

(d) Sergio Ramos, Spain

(e) Robert Lewandowski, Poland

Ans.(c)
Sol. The Golden Ball Award was won by the Croatian captain Luka Modric for the World Cup’s Best Player. Modric won Man-Of-The-Match three times in Croatia’s seven games in Russia.

Q4. Man of the Match award in the Final match of FIFA World Cup 2018 was awarded to _____________. 

(a) Kylian Mbappe

(b) Antoine Griezmann

(c) Paul Pogba

(d) Thierry Henry

(e) Olivier Giroud
Ans.(b)
Sol. Man of the Match in the Final was awarded to Antoine Griezmann of France.

Q5. Name the player who won the Golden Glove Award 2018 for the best goalkeeper. 

(a) Essam El-Hadary

(b) Rui Patricio

(c) Thibaut Courtois

(d) Hugo Lloris

(e) David De Gea
Ans.(c)
Sol. Golden Glove Award: Belgium’s Thibaut Courtois won the Golden Glove award for the best goalkeeper.

Sports Current Affairs Questions

  1. Which team has won the 2018 Cotif Cup football tournament?
  2. Venezuela
  3. Mauritania
  4. India
  5. Russia

Answer: Option C

Explanation: The Indian Under-20 football team has created history by winning the 2018 Cotif Cup football tournament by defeating the 6-time U20 World Cup champions Argentina by 2-1 in their final match in Spain on 6 August. Deepak Tangri scored for India in the 4th minute and Anwar Ali’s 68th minute put India 2-0 up against the most successful team in U-20 World Cup history. Argentina pulled one back in the 72nd minute, and hit the cross bar in added time, but failed to break the Indian resolve as India concluded the tournament with a memorable performance.

View Answer Discuss in Forum Workspace Report

  1. A facial recognition system using artificial intelligence will be used at which of the following event?
  2. ISSF World Cup Shooting
  3. 18th Asian games
  4. 33 Winter Olympics
  5. 2020 Tokyo Olympic and Paralympic Games

Answer: Option D

Explanation: A facial recognition system using artificial intelligence will be used at the 2020 Tokyo Olympic and Paralympic Games. The Tokyo Olympics will be the first games to have this kind of security system using facial recognition technology. It is aimed at strengthening security and preventing terrorism, as well as shortening waiting times to lower athlete stress.

 

  1. Which country’s women team has clinched gold in the Blitz event at the Asian Nations Chess Cup 2018?
  2. India
  3. Vietnam
  4. China
  5. Spain

Answer: Option A

Explanation:

The Indian women chess team has clinched the gold in the Blitz event at the Asian Nations Chess Cup 2018 at Hamadan, Iran on August 3. It’s India’s first gold-medal finish at the event since 2014. The Indian team comprising Harika Dronavalli, Eesha Karavade, Padmini Rout, Vaishali R and Aakanksha Haga left the teams from Vietnam and China behind to clinch gold. Apart from this, they also bagged a silver and a bronze in the Rapid and Classical categories, respectively. India (1st) finished with 21.5 points, Vietnam (2nd) settled for silver with 18.5 and China (3rd) bagged bronze with 17.5.

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  1. Which team won the gold medal in the Women’s Hockey World Cup 2018?
  2. Netherlands
  3. Ireland
  4. Spain
  5. India

Answer: Option A

Explanation: Women’s Hockey World Cup 2018 was held in Queen Elizabeth Olympic Park, London. Defending champions the Netherlands defeated Ireland 6-0 in the finals and won the Women’s Hockey World Cup 2018 title. The Netherlands have emerged as the world champions in Women’s hockey for a record 8th time. They have extended their unbeaten performance in all competitions to 32 matches. Kitty van Male, one among the 6 different goal scorers emerged as the top scorer of the tournament with 8 goals.

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  1. The Asin Nations Cup Chess Tournament 2018 was held in __________.
  2. China
  3. Iran
  4. Singaore
  5. India

Answer: Option B

Explanation:

The biennial Asian Nations Cup Chess Tournament was held in Hamadan, Iran. It was organized by Iran Chess Federation on behalf of Asian Chess Federation. India won 5 medals: 1 gold, 2 silver, 2 bronze. India ranked 2nd in the overall ranking. he winning team of Gold consisted of : Grand Master Harika Dronavalli , International Master Eesha Karavade, International Master Padmini Rout and Women’s International Masters (WIMs) Vaishali R, Aakanksha Hagawane.

  1. What is the rank of Indian men’s hockey team in the latest FIH rankings?
  2. 5
  3. 4
  4. 3
  5. 2

Answer: Option A

Explanation: Indian men’s hockey team has improved one rank and has reached the 5th spot in the latest FIH rankings chart. Germany, England, Spain, New Zealand and Ireland are the other teams in the top 10. In the women’s rankings, the Indian team improved one spot to and reached 9th position.

  1. Which team won the WSF-World junior squash team championship 2018?
  2. England
  3. USA
  4. Egypt
  5. India

Answer: Option C

Explanation: The Egypt squash team has won the boy’s title at the 6th WSF-World junior squash team championship 2018 by defeating England by 2-0 in Chennai, Tamil Nadu on July 29. Egypt’s Marwan Tarek, who lost the individual championship final, defeated Nick Wall of England in straight games. Czech Republic and USA finished third and secured the bronze medal. Host India finished 11th overall.

  1. Which team entered quarter finals of 2018 Women’s Hockey World Cup?
  2. India
  3. Ireland
  4. England
  5. Italy

Answer: Option A

Explanation: India stormed into the quarterfinals of the Women’s Hockey World Cup beating Italy 3-0 in London. In their last playoffs, Indian women produced a stellar performance to ease past Italy. Two penalty corner goals from Neha Goyal and Vandana Katariya in 45th and 55th minute helped India register the emphatic win. India will meet in Ireland. Meanwhile, in the second crossover match of the day, hosts England beat Korea 2-0 to set up a quarterfinal date with the Netherlands. The semi-finals will be played on Saturday. The Final is slated for Sunday.

 

  1. How many medals are bagged by the India in the 2018 Jordan Junior and Cadet Open?
  2. 8
  3. 12
  4. 20
  5. 15

Answer: Option D

Explanation: The 2018 Jordan Junior and Cadet Open was held in Amman, Jordan. India won 15 medals: 2 gold, 3 silver and 10 bronze at the 2018 Jordan Junior and Cadet Open.

  1. ICC, organised the ‘Sano Cricket Curry Festival’ in which city?
  2. Sano
  3. Tokyo
  4. Shinjuku
  5. Hong Kong

Answer: Option A

Explanation: International cricket’s governing body, ICC, organised the ‘Sano Cricket Curry Festival’ in the Japanese city of Sano to promote cricket in the nation. A cricket match between the Japanese cricket team and an Indian team was held at the event. The festival also featured cultural events and food from cricket-playing nations like Bangladesh, India, Pakistan, Nepal and Sri Lanka.

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9 Pictures Of Indian Army Soldiers In Kerala Flood Rescue Will Make You Speechless

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Indian Army Flood Rescue

After a massive flood in Kerala, Indian Army Airforce and Navy are on the rescue mission like always, our armed forces are doing their best to save as many as lives they can in Kerela. Due to the flood in Kerala, dam reservoirs and rivers are overflowed, sections of highways are collapsed and many homes were swept away in severe flooding in more than half of Kerala, around 54,000 people are homeless and 29 are killed as per the official report. PREPARE FOR THE SSB INTERVIEW

As always Indian armed forces are in place for the rescue operation in Kerala, here are few pictures of Indian army soldiers in Kerala flood rescue will make you speechless.

Indian Army Kerala Flood 9 Indian Army Kerala Flood 8 Indian Army Kerala Flood 7 Indian Army Kerala Flood 6 Indian Army Kerala Flood 5 Indian Army Kerala Flood 4 Indian Army Kerala Flood 3 Indian Army Kerala Flood 2 Indian Army Kerala Flood 1

 

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NDA 2019 Age Limits – Can I Apply?

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NDA 2019 AGE LIMITS

NDA 2019 AGE LIMITS

Young defence aspirants who are looking for the NDA 2019 notification and want to join the prestigious national defence academy after 12th can check the NDA 1 2019 and NDA 2 2019 age limits below. So many candidates who have attempted last NDA exams and the one who are going to appear for the NDA exam 2019 are asking us the age limits of NDA exam which is going to happen in 2019. To apply for NDA exam you must be under the age range which we are going to mention below, of course, there are other criteria as well which you need to fulfill. But in this article, let’s talk about the correct age limits for NDA 2019 Exams.

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Why is NDA age limit important?

  • There is no fixed number of attempts you can make for NDA exam, you can apply for NDA exam as long as you meet the age limit requirements (most important, other factors are also counted). Because of the NDA age limits and your DOB, some might get 3 chances and some of you might get 4 chances. Read below to find the NDA age limits of the upcoming exams.

NDA 1 2019 Age, Exam Date, Notification, Result and SSB Date

NDA 1 2019
Date of notification 09.01.2019
Last date of online applications 04.02.2019
Date of examination 21.04.2019
Result Date July 2019
SSB Date Aug 2019

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NDA 1 2019 Age Limits

  • Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd July 2000 and not later than 1st July 2003 are eligible.
  • The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificates. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.
  • Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate available or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
  • Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at any subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.
  • The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the respective column of the Online Application Form for the Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent Examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.
  • Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application though successful at this or any subsequent Examination will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the Government.

NDA 2 2019 Age, Exam Date, Notification, Result and SSB Date

NDA 2 2019
Date of notification 07.08.2019
Last date of online applications 03.09.2019
Date of examination 17.11.2019
Result Date Feb 2020
SSB Date April 2020

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NDA 2 2019 Age Limits

  • Only unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 02nd Jan 2001 and not later than 1st Jan 2004 are eligible.
  • The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificates. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.
  • Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate available or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.
  • Candidates should also note that once a date of birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at any subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever.
  • The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth in the respective column of the Online Application Form for the Examination. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent Examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules.
  • Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application though successful at this or any subsequent Examination will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the Government.

Conclusion:

  • If you are born before 02nd July 2000, you are not eligible for NDA 1 2019. For example, if your DOB is 01 July 2000, you are not eligible.

  • If you are born before 02nd Jan 2001, you are not eligible for NDA 2 2019. For example, if your DOB is 01 Jan 2001, you are not eligible.

NDA 1 2019 Important dates

  • Notification Date – 09 January 2019
  • Last date of form submission – 04 February 2019
  • Date of examination – 21 April 2019

NDA 2 2019 Important dates

  • Date of notification –7 Aug 2019
  • Last date of form submission – 03 September 2019
  • Date of exam – 17 November 2019

How to prepare for NDA Exam?

  • Get a comprehensive book for NDA aspirants named “ Let’s Crack NDA Exam
  • The book covers strictly what you need to study for the NDA exam.
  • Also, a major problem faced by the aspirants regarding the current affairs section, we are providing lifetime access to our CA ebooks with this book.

READ NDA 1 2019 NOTIFICATION

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Defence Exams and Interview Books:

CDS Exam 2020 Age Limits

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CDS EXAM 2019 AGE LIMITS

Defence aspirants who are looking forward to writing the CDS exam in 2020 can find the important details below, you can check your age limits for the CDS 1 2020 and CDS 2 2020 exam which is conducted by UPSC. Though there are further eligibility criteria for the CDS exam but the age limit is something you need to check first. All the graduates and final year student can apply for the CDS exam and join the IMA, OTA, AFA and NA. CDS 2019 notification and exam date is also mentioned below.

UPSC will be conducting CDS 1 2020 and CDS 2 2020 next year (2020). Candidates who are preparing for CDS exam 2020 can check the age limits, exam and notification date for the same. If you are eligible for Combined Defence Services Examination in 2020, you must start your preparation from now.  Only eligible candidates can apply for the CDS Exam through UPSC website.

CDS exam is not easy due to lakhs of defence aspirants are applying every year, based on the last result declared by UPSC, only 8548 cleared the CDS written exam of CDS 1 2017. So it is better to start the preparation from today if you find your self-eligible.

CDS 1 2020: Important Dates

Events Important Dates
CDS 1 2020 Notification Release Date 30th October 2019
CDS 1 2020 Online Application Start Date 30th October 2019
CDS 1 2020 Last date to Apply online 19th November 2019
CDS 1 2020 Exam Date 2nd February 2020

CDS 1 2020 Vacancy

CDS Course Total Vacancies
Indian Military Academy, Dehradun 100
Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala 45
Indian Air Force Academy, Hyderabad 32
Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Men) 225
Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Women) 16

CDS 1 2019 Age, Exam Date, Notification, Result and SSB Date

CDS 1 2019
Date of notification 31 October 2018
Last date of online applications 26 November 2018
Date of examination 03 February 2019
Result Date June 2019
SSB Date July 2019

CDS EXAM 2019 AGE LIMITSCDS 1 2019 Exam Age Limit

  • CDS 1 2019 Exam Age Limit For IMA : Male candidates born not earlier than 2nd Jan 1996 and not later than 1st Jan 2001 only are eligible.
  • CDS 1 2019 Exam Age Limit For OTA : Male candidates (unmarried) born not earlier than 2nd Jan , 1995 and not later than 1st Jan , 2001 only are eligible. Unmarried Women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 2nd Jan 1995 and not later than 1st Jan 2001
  • CDS 1 2019 Exam Age Limit For AFA :  20 to 24 Years as on 1st Jan , 2020 i.e. born not earlier than 02 Jan 1996 and not later than 01 Jan 2000 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable up to 26 Yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 02 Jan 1994 and not later than 01 Jan 2000) only are eligible. Note : Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live out with family.
  • CDS 1 2019 Exam Age Limit For NA : Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd Jan 1996 and not later than 1st Jan 2001 only are eligible.

CDS 2 2019 Age, Exam Date, Notification, Result and SSB Date

CDS 2 2019
Date of notification 12 June 2019
Last date of online applications 08 July 2019
Date of examination 08 September 2019
Result Date December 2019
SSB Date Feb 2020

CDS 2 2019 Exam Age Limit

  • CDS 2 2019 Exam Age Limit For IMA : Male candidates born not earlier than 2nd Jul 1996 and not later than 1st Jul 2001 only are eligible.
  • CDS 2 2019 Exam Age Limit For OTA : Male candidates (unmarried) born not earlier than 2nd Jul 1995 and not later than 1st Jul 2001 only are eligible. Unmarried Women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 2nd Jan 1995 and not later than 1st Jan 2001
  • CDS 2 2019 Exam Age Limit For AFA :  20 to 24 Years as on 1st July 2020 i.e. born not earlier than 02 July 1996 and not later than 01 July 2000 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable up to 26 Yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 02 July 1994 and not later than 01 July 2000) only are eligible. Note: Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live out with family.
  • CDS 2 2019 Exam Age Limit For NA: Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July 1996 and not later than 1st July 2001 only are eligible.

CDS Exam Question Papers: (FOR IMA/AFA/NA)

Questions Papers Time Max Marks
General Knowledge (120 questions) 120 Minutes (2 hours) 100
English (120 questions) 120 Minutes (2 hours) 100
Elementary Mathematics (100 questions) 120 Minutes (2 hours) 100

CDS Exam Question Papers: (FOR OTA)

Questions Papers Time Max Marks
General Knowledge (120 questions) 120 Minutes (2 hours) 100
English (120 questions) 120 Minutes (2 hours) 100

CDS 2019 Pattern:

CDS 2019 Exam Pattern Details
Examination Mode OMR Sheet (use black pen).
Language Both Hindi and English
Type of Questions Multiple Choice Question.
Negative Marking Deduction is 1/3 Marks for each incorrect response.

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What Is Time Scale Promotion In Indian Army?

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Promotion Cover

Seniority in the armed forces is taken very seriously by the men in service. Recently, in a bid to end the ongoing controversy over equivalence between armed forces personnel and their civilian counterparts in the Armed Forces Headquarters (AFHQ), the Defence Ministry has issued a fresh clarification.

The Ministry has directed that effective July 30, military personnel and civilian counterparts working together in the service headquarters will revert to their earlier cadre designations.

However, seniority is much of an issue within the army itself.

Promotions In The Army

Initial promotions in the defence are based on a timescale for the first three ranks: one becomes a Lieutenant at the commission, a Captain after 3 years of service (excluding ante-date seniority), a Major after 4 years of service and a Lt Colonel after 13 years. After this, promotions are based on selection depending on the frequency with which positions become free. This stands true for equivalent ranks of Air Force and Navy.

Promotion after this stage becomes steeper due to the army’s pyramidal promotional structure and many officers are promoted only on the selection basis after this stage. However, there are some officers who spend a good amount of service years with a current rank (say, Lt Col) yet could not make it due to rigorous selection norms. Hence, for this purpose, there exists a concept of Time Scale (TS) promotions.

Promotion Procedure
Current Promotion Procedure

Time Scale (TS) Promotions

For our understanding, we will take the example only of army’s colonel rank. This is applicable to all other ORs and ranks in Air Force and Navy as well.

Currently, a large chunk of officers fails to make the cut for the Colonel’s rank due to the army’s pyramidal structure and rigorous selection norms. That means a Lt Col cannot become a Col unless and until a current Col retires or he is promoted to Brigadier.

So, at the stage of Lt Colonel, along with the service time in that rank, an officer needs to satisfy one more parameter for the promotion. This parameter is promotional board exams. These exams help an officer to get the promotion to the post of Colonel as soon as he’s eligible for it.

Hence a Lt Col is promoted when he satisfies the service time in that rank and also cleared the promotional board exams, otherwise, Lt Cols, who are unable to clear their promotion boards, become time-scale colonels after 26 years of reckonable commissioned service and hence they write their rank as Colonel (TS).

Shortening the duration from 26 to 23 years

But, according to an article published in Hindustan Times dt 20 Oct 2014, the army is considering shortening the duration of service required to pick up the time-scale rank of colonel to 23 years of service. This was aimed at retaining officers who have been overlooked for promotion. Anyway, currently, Lt Colonels, who are unable to clear their promotion boards, become time-scale colonels after 26 years.

As per the article, the incentive of wearing a colonel’s red collar tags three years early will discourage officers from quitting the force after rendering the minimum pensionable service of 20 years.

Petitions on this issue

The issue of overlooking senior officers and promoting junior officers has long been a cause for concern in the army. On 31 May 2005, Lt. Col. (Time Scale) D.S. Pandey filed a case in the Delhi High Court. The petitioner was commissioned in the Indian Army in June 1982 into 4/A Gorkha Regiment. Since his commissioning, petitioner attended various professional courses and according to him, he did consistently well and achieved highest possible grading. Despite petitioner achieving high grading because of his hard work and successfully completing the course, he was found unfit even for the first rank of Lt. Colonel by Selection Boards held in the year 1998, 1999 and 2000. His juniors were being selected for the higher ranks, superceding him.

Equality of a TS officer and a Select officer

In a series of judgements in 2015 with wide implications for service officers, the armed forces tribunal (AFT) has ruled that the Navy cannot retire “time-scale” captains (equivalent to Col in the army) at the age of 54 when “selection-grade” captains serve till 56.

Citing a Supreme Court judgement, the AFT bench said the government could not permit two dates of retirement for persons working in the same rank. “Once a person is promoted as captain (time-scale), he has to perform all the duties of a captain and draws the same salary and allowance. Therefore, to hold him as a class different from a selection grade captain would be discriminatory,” it held.

Therefore, even the Colonel (Time Scale) will have the same rules and benefits as applicable to Colonel (Select).

 

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CDS 2 2018 Exam Date, Age Limit, Application Form, Exam Pattern, Cut Off

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CDS 2 2018 Apply SSBCrack

The candidates who are willing to apply for CDS 2018 exam i.e. CDS 1 2018 and CDS 2 2018 can find the complete details on CDS 2 2018 exam date, age limit, eligibility, application form, exam pattern, cut off and notification date below. The CDS II 2018 exam is held in the month of 18 November 2018. The candidates can fill their application forms through the official website of UPSC and through the online mode. The candidates can find complete details about the form filling and latest updates regarding CDS 2 2018 on SSBCrack.  PREPARE FOR THE SSB INTERVIEW

About CDS 2 2018 Exam

CDS Exam is also known as Combined Defence Services Examination is conducted by UPSC two times every year. CDS is one of the most famous defence exam through which you can join the Indian Army, Navy and Airforce as an officer. Aspirants who are studying in final year of their graduation or completed their graduation can apply for the CDS exam through UPSC online. Through CDS exam you can join Indian Military Academy, Officers Training Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Airforce Academy. You can find more details on CDS 2 2018 examination below.

UPSC CDS II 2018 Important Dates

UPSC CDS 2 2018 Important Dates

UPSC  CDS 2 2018 Notification Date 08 August 2018
UPSC  CDS 2 2018 Last Date 03 September 2018 till 6:00 PM
UPSC  CDS 2 2018 Exam Date 18 November 2018
UPSC  CDS 2 2018 Result Jan – Feb 2019
UPSC  CDS 2 2018 SSB Interview Date April 2019 Onwards
UPSC  CDS 2 2018 Final Merit List One month prior to joining
UPSC  CDS 2 2018 Preparation Book Let’s Crack CDS Exam

UPSC CDS II 2018 Vacancies

UPSC CDS 2 2018 No. of Vacancies

Indian Military Academy, Dehradun—147th (DE) Course commencing in July, 2019 [including 13 vacancies reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Army Wing) holders]

100

Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala—Course commencing in July, 2019 Executive (General Service)/Hydro [including 06 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate holders (Naval Wing)].

45

Air Force Academy, Hyderabad—(Pre-Flying) Training Course commencing in July, 2019 i.e. No. 206 F(P) Course. [03 vacancies are reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Air Wing) holders through NCC Spl. Entry]

32

Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai — 110th SSC (Men) Course (NT) commencing in October, 2019. (including 50 vacancies for NCC ‘C’ certificate holders for NCC Spl. Entry)

225

Officers Training Academy, Chennai—24th SSC Women (Non-Technical) Course commencing in October, 2019.

12

UPSC CDS II 2018 Age Limits

UPSC CDS 2 2018 Age Limits

Indian Military Academy Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 1995 and not later than 1st July, 2000 only are eligible.
Indian Naval Academy Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 1995 and not later than 1st July, 2000 only are eligible.
Air Force Academy 20 to 24 years as on 1st July, 2019 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd July, 1995 and not later than 1st July, 1999 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 2nd July, 1993 and not later than 1st July, 1999) only are eligible.
Officers’ Training Academy (SSC Course for men) Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd July, 1994 and not later than 1st July, 2000 only are eligible.
For Officers’ Training Academy— (SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 2nd July, 1994 and not later than 1st July, 2000.

NOTE: Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male for the purpose of their admission in IMA/INA/AFA courses and accordingly they are not eligible for these courses.

UPSC CDS II 2018 Education Qualification

UPSC CDS 2 2018 Education Qualification

Indian Military Academy Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
Indian Naval Academy Degree in Engineering from a recognised University/Institution.
Indian Airforce Academy Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering.
Officer’s Training Academy(Women) Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
Officer’s Training Academy (Men) Degree of a recognised University or equivalent.
Graduates with the first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of graduation provisional certificates on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB.

CDS 2 2018 Final Year Student – Can They Apply?

Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have  yet to pass the final year degree examination can also apply provided candidate should not have any present backlog up to the last semester / year for which results have been declared up to the time of submission of application and they will be required to submit proof of passing the degree examination at the time of commencement of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army), Rtg ‘A’, CDSE Entry, West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi 110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and Naval HQ “DMPR” (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates and PO3(A)/Air Headquarters, ‘J’ Block, Room No. 17, Opp. Vayu Bhawan, Motilal Nehru Marg, New Delhi-110 106 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by the following dates failing which their candidature will stand cancelled :

  • For admission to IMA on or before 1st July, 2019, Indian Naval Academy on or before 1st July, 2019 and Air Force Academy on or before 13th May, 2019.
  • For admission to Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai on or before 1st October, 2019.
  • Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by government as equivalent to professional and technical degrees would also be eligible for admission to the examination.
  • In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that he/she possesses qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his/her admission to the examination.
  • Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they are studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the final year Degree Examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by the prescribed date and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever. Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester degree course are required to submit at the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued by University/College stating that they will be able to submit their proof of passing the graduation degree examination by the specified date, failing which their candidature will be cancelled.
  • Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled.
  • In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure to learn flying, they would be absorbed in the Navigation/Ground Duty (Non Tech) Branches of the IAF. This will be subject to availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements.

CDS 2 2018 Application Fee

Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred Only) either by depositing the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using net banking facility of SBI, State Bank of Bikaner & Jaipur/State Bank of Hyderabad/State Bank of Mysore/State Bank of Patiala/State Bank of Travancore or by using Visa/Master Credit/Debit Card.

Below are the details on CDS 2 2018 exam pattern for IMA, INA, AFA and OTA with question papers, maximum marks and exam duration. Also, you can check the CDS 2 2018 detailed syllabus which will help you during CDS exam preparation. 

CDS 2 2018 SSBCrack
AFA, IMA, INA, OTA

CDS 2 2018 Exam Pattern – INA, IMA, AFA

Question Paper Maximum Marks Duration
English 100 2 Hours
Mathematics 100 2 Hours
General Knowledge (GK) 100 2 Hours

CDS 2018 Exam Pattern – OTA Chennai

Question Paper Maximum Marks Duration
General Knowledge (GK) 100 2 Hours
English 100 2 Hours

CDS 2 2018 Syllabus

Question Paper 

Topics

Mathematics

Number System, Unitary method compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation, Elementary Number Theory. H.C.F. and L.C.M, Euclidean algorithm, Logarithms, Algebra, trigonometry, geometry, areas, menstruation and statistics

GK

Current Affairs, Static GK, General science, Civics, Physics, Chemistry, History, Geography

English

Basic grammar topics, comprehension, synonyms, antonyms, Para jumbles and error spotting.

CDS 2 2018 Selection Procedure

Candidates who will apply for the CDS 2 2018 exam successfully will be issues with an admit card to attempt the CDS 2 2018 exam on 18th Nov 2018. UPSC will publish the list of successful candidates who have cleared the CDS 2 2018 written exam in Jan – Feb 2019. All the candidates who have cleared the CDS 2 2018 written exam will be registering to join indian army website for their SSB interview date and once the SSB date selection is live, they can select their SSB interview date. Below is CDS 2 2018 selection procedure.

  • CDS 2 2018 written exam will be conducted.
  • Candidates who will clear the CDS 2 2018 written exam will be called for 5 Day SSB Interview.
  • Candidates will be allocated with SSB dates and Venue, same will be informed after the declaration of the result.
  • Candidates who clear the 5 Day SSB interview procedure will be going for a week-long medical examination.
  • UPSC will publish the merit list of successful candidates.
  • Candidates will get the join instructions of their respective academy based on the order of merit. 
  • To know more about 5 Day SSB interview get the books “Let’s Crack SSB interview” and “Breaking the Code of SSB Psychology

Around 2-3 lakh candidates will apply for the CDS 2 2018 written exam and around 10000- 15000 will be able to clear the written exam, out of all the successful candidates around 500-1000 candidates will only clear the SSB interview and Medical examination. Though the CDS exam is not that though at it consists of Maths, English, and GK, it can be cleared with better self-study and everyday practice. You can get the book ‘Let’s Crack CDS Exam’ for better practice. On the other hand, the main challenge is the 5 Day long SSB interview, this is something you need to prepare for, SSB interview is India’s one of the toughest interviews with very low success rate. Only best of best can make through it.

CDS Cut Off Marks 2018 :

You can find the details of CDS Cut off marks for IMA, OTA, AFA and INA. CDS Cut off marks will help you to understand the level of competition and you can prepare better for this exam when you know the benchmark. There won’t be much movement in the cut off marks if we go by the previous CDS cut off marks trends.

CDS 1 2018 Cut Off Marks [Expected]

S.No Academy Expected Cut Off
1 OTA (Women) 92
2 OTA (Men) 92
3 IMA 100
4 INA 99
5 IAF 120

CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks [Expected]: The cutoff of CDS 2 2017 exam has not been released by UPSC yet. Aspirants who appeared for CDS 2 2017 written exam can check the expected cut off below:

S.No Academy Expected Cut Off
1 OTA (Women) 95
2 OTA (Men) 95
3 IMA 115
4 INA 100
5 IAF 115

CDS 1 2017 Cut Off Marks [Expected]: The cutoff of CDS 1 2017 exam has not been released by UPSC yet. Aspirants who appeared for CDS 1 2017 written exam can check the expected cut off below:

S.No Academy Expected Cut Off
1 OTA (Women) 90
2 OTA (Men) 90
3 IMA 105
4 INA 100
5 IAF 120

CDS 2 2016 Cutoff Official: These are the official cut off marks of CDS 2 2016 exam published by UPSC

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  105 marks (i.e. 35%) 227
INA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  90 marks (i.e. 30%) 225
AFA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  135 marks (i.e. 45%) 258
OTA (Men) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  72 marks (i.e. 36%) 157
OTA (Women) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  72 marks (i.e. 36%) 159

CDS 1 2016 Cutoff Official: These are the official cut off marks of CDS 1 2016 exam published by UPSC

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  72 214
INA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  63 217
AFA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  123 249
OTA (Men) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  68 150
OTA (Women) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  68 157

CDS 2 2015 Cutoff Official: These are the official cut off marks of CDS 2 2015 exam published by UPSC

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  105 marks (i.e. 35%) 227
INA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  99 marks (i.e. 33%) 227
AFA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  138 marks (i.e. 46%) 269
OTA (Men) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  84 marks (i.e. 42%) 166
OTA (Women) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  84 marks (i.e. 42%) 170

CDS 1 2015 Cutoff Official: These are the official cut off marks of CDS 1 2015 exam published by UPSC

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  102 marks (i.e. 35%) 225
INA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  99 marks (i.e. 33%) 225
AFA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  129 marks (i.e. 46%) 264
OTA (Men) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  86 marks (i.e. 42%) 168
OTA (Women) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  86 marks (i.e. 42%) 172

CDS 2 2014 Cutoff Official: These are the official cut off marks of CDS 2 2014 exam published by UPSC

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  99 marks (i.e. 33%) 224
INA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  93 marks (i.e. 31%) 224
AFA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  129 marks (i.e. 43%) 257
OTA (Men) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  86 marks (i.e. 43%) 168
OTA (Women) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  86 marks (i.e. 43%) 170

CDS 1 2014 Cutoff Official: These are the official cut off marks of CDS 1 2014 exam published by UPSC

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  99  222
INA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  99 222
AFA 20  marks (i.e. 20%)  129 250
OTA (Men) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  78 159
OTA (Women) 20 marks (i.e. 20%)  78  160

CDS 2013 Cutoff

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 111 marks( i.e 37%) 231
INA 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 111 marks( i.e 37%) 231
AFA 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 135 marks (i.e. 45%) 266
OTA (Men) 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 76 marks (i.e. 38%) 158
OTA (Women) 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 76 marks (i.e. 38%) 160

CDS 2012 Cutoff

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 12 114 237
INA 12 108 231
AFA 12 144 266
OTA (Men) 12 76 158
OTA (Women) 12 76 159

CDS Sectional Cut Off Marks

Course Minimum qualifying marks in each subject (may vary)
IMA 20 Marks (i.e. 20%)
INA 20 Marks (i.e. 20%)
AFA 20 Marks (i.e. 20%)
OTA Men 20 Marks (i.e. 20%)
OTA Women 20 Marks (i.e. 20%)

CDS 2 2018 Admit Card

Candidates who will apply for the CDS 2 2018 exam successfully will be getting their admit card a month prior to the exam date. To download the CDS 2 2018 admit card you need to visit the UPSC website and you can download your CDS 2 2018 admit card using your name and application number. The Union Public Service Commission will publish the CDS 2 2018 Call Letter in October 2018. Candidates who do not apply for the exam correctly might not get their admit card so do read the instructions before you apply.

Tips to Clear CDS 2 2018 Exam

    1. Know the syllabus first, candidates who are very good in general mathematics, English and GK, especially the freshers, never look and study the syllabus of CDS exam. Always study the syllabus of cds exam which will help you to understand what they might ask in cds exam paper. After you scan the whole cds exam syllabus, make sure you are filtering out topics where you do not need any preparation and you are 100% confident of clearing it, topics which you are not 100% confident are the one you want to prepare to clear CDS exam. Weed out the topics which you have zero knowledge on and keep them for last. So here the basic idea is to prepare as many as topics you can with 100% confident, even if you missed out 10% of the topics from Maths, English and GK it won’t affect you that much. To have better understanding of these topics, refer to the cds exam questions blueprint.
    2. Refer to previous question papers of cds exam; this method of preparation is followed by many successful candidates since many years. So always solve 10-15 previous question papers and find out where you are lacking, focus on topics which you are sure about and you will succeed without any doubt. 
    3. Consider various preparation sources like books, e-books, online preparation, online groups, blogs etc. This will make your preparation rock solid and you will also discover things which you are not aware of while preparing with the single source. So extend your horizon to discover more things related to cds exam preparation, you never know what advantage you will get by preparing with all other sources.
    4. Start well in advance and make a plan as to how you are going to prepare for cds exam, stick to your plan till the end. Most of the candidates who are good enough to clear the cds exam never realize the importance of time, at the last minute they misses out the revising topics which are very important for cds exam, this leads to sure shot failure. So always try to kick start your cds exam preparation as soon as you can.

Read : Official CDS 2 2018 Notification PDF – SSBCrack

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What Is Article 35A And What Is The Controversy Revolving It?

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Article 35A Cover
Article 35A Cover

There has been a lot of debates recently revolving around the validity of Article 35A and its correctness. In this article, we will discuss what is the issue revolving Article 35A.

What is article 35A?

Article 35A states, “no existing law in force in the state of J&K and no law hereafter enacted by the legislature of the state, conferring on permanent residents any special rights and privileges or imposing upon other persons any restrictions as respects:

(1) Employment under the State Government;

(2) Acquisition of immovable property in the State;

(3) Settlement in the State; or

(4) Right to scholarships and such other forms of aid as the State Government may provide,

Shall be void on the ground that it is inconsistent with or takes away or abridges any rights conferred on the other citizens of India by any provision of this Part.”

Basically, Article 35A gives the Jammu and Kashmir Legislature unlimited discretionary power to decide who all are ‘permanent residents’ of the State. It also gives the legislature a power to confer on them special rights and privileges in public sector jobs, acquisition of property in the State, scholarships and other public aid and welfare.

The provision mandates that no act of the legislature coming under it can be challenged for violating the Constitution or any other law of the land.

How did it come about?

Basically, article 35(1)(A) of Article 35 of the Indian constitution states that –

“The Parliament of India shall have the power to make laws prescribing residence as a condition for certain employment or appointments in a state or union territory or local authority or any other authority.”

However, Article 35A empowers the Jammu and Kashmir legislature to define these permanent residents of the state.

The Jammu and Kashmir Constitution was adopted on November 17, 1956. But, the special status given by Article 35A was sourced from the 1954 Presidential Order, which gave special rights to the State’s permanent residents.

How it affects the J&K residents?

No one from outside J&K wants to go and work in the J&K because he cannot purchase his own house or get a government job there. Even the refugees after the independence, who migrated to India from Pakistan, are treated as second-class citizens with no proper rights. They cannot even acquire any immovable property in the State, they do not have the right to employment under the State, the right to start an industry, purchase a motor vehicle and so on.

So, what is the issue?

Petitioners are contending that the provision of Article 35A was added through a Presidential order by the then President Rajendra Prasad on the advice of the Jawaharlal Nehru Cabinet. It was not passed through the Parliament. Hence, it is constitutionally invalid.

The order was issued under Article 370(1)(d) of the Constitution which allows the President to make certain “exceptions and modifications” to the Constitution for the benefit of ‘State subjects’ of Jammu and Kashmir.

Why does it matter?

It matters because the proper route of amending the constitution was bypassed when implementing this order. The changes in the constitution are required to be routed through the parliamentary route only as per Article 368 (i).

By implementing Article 35A, the President has overlooked article 368(i) and the parliament was not involved in amending the constitution.

Though the President may modify an existing provision in the Constitution under Article 370, the issue finally boils down to the President’s rights to amend the constitution without Parliament’s approval. This question remains open.

Should Article 35A be removed?

Intellectuals in the state are of the view that removal of Article 35-A shall result in more people coming into the state from other parts of India resulting in mass unemployment. They say that children won’t get educational opportunities in higher education, business classes will have to compete more and so on.

But the issue is, some people who have lived in J&K for decades now, are still not having the PRC (Permanent Resident Certificate).

However, the article has been modified through various Presidential Orders more than 40 times.

Under the existing arrangements, laws framed by the Jammu and Kashmir legislature exercising powers under Article 35A cannot be challenged on the ground of violation of fundamental right to equality of Indian citizens from other states.

Why don’t separatists and political parties want 35A to be removed?

Basically, if 35A is removed, the onus to provide jobs, education and fill government post will lie on the state government to all the people of J&K. Separatists fear the possibility of Hindus ‘flooding’ the valley.

Currently, only the PRC holders can get a job or buy a home in the valley.

The Case

Four petitions, which demanded the scrapping of the provision, have been listed before a bench of Chief Justice of India Dipak Misra and Justices AM Khanwilkar and DY Chandrachud.

The main petition was filed by ‘We the Citizens’, a Delhi-based NGO in 2014. Three more petitions were also filed challenging the Article but were later clubbed with the main one.

The issue has come to the centre stage of controversy after the Supreme Court’s indication that it may be dealt with by a five-judge constitution bench.

The issue has triggered controversy after a plea was filed by Charu Wali Khanna, a lawyer and former member of the National Commission for Women, challenging Article 35A of the Constitution and Section 6 of the Jammu and Kashmir Constitution which deal with the “permanent residents” of the state.

The plea has challenged certain provisions of the Constitution which deny property right to a woman who marries a person from outside the state. The provision, which makes such women from the state to lose rights over property, also applies to her son.

So what if Article 35A is removed?

Removing Article 35A will immediately nullify all the 41 subsequent Presidential Orders. This will restore pre-1954 arrangement between New Delhi and Jammu and Kashmir.

It would allow people from outside Jammu-Kashmir to settle in the state and acquire land and property, and the right to vote, thus altering the demography of the Muslim-majority state.

The Supreme Court and Election Commission of India would cease to extend over Jammu and Kashmir. The Centre’s jurisdiction over Jammu and Kashmir would be limited to only in the matters of Defence, External Affairs and Communication.

5 Inspiring Facts About Major Kaustubh Rane Who Made Supreme Sacrifice For The Nation

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Major Kaustubh Prakash Rane along with Rifleman Mandeep Singh Rawat, Rifleman Hameer Singh, Gunner Vikram Jeet Singh made the supreme sacrifice for the nation while fighting terrorists in Gurez sector of Jammu and Kashmir. Friends and family of Major Kaustubh Rane were shocked beyond belief to hear the news of his martyrdom. Major Kaustubh Rane was just 29 years old and led his team bravely to face all odds and challenges during the operation. We offer our deepest condolences to the bereaved families of all the martyred soldiers. May god give them strength in this hour of grief.  Officers like Major Kaustubh Rane always motivated young blood of this country to join the defence forces and serve the nation with this great profession. Here are some inspiring facts about Major Kaustubh Rane which will motive us more.PREPARE FOR THE SSB INTERVIEW

 

  • Major Kaustubh Prakash Rane who, along with three Army soldiers, was martyred while fighting Pakistani infiltrators near the Line of Control in Bandipore district of north Kashmir on Tuesday, hailed from Mira Road. The soldiers, led by Major Rane, gunned down two of the eight infiltrators before falling to their bullets. He and His Soldiers were Ambushed By the group Of 8 terrorists Near Loc During Regular Patrolling at Gurez Sector. Major Rane Was Martyred After Killing 2 Terrorists.

  • Major Rane is survived by a two-year-old son, wife and parents, who live in Hiral Sagar building in Sheetal Nagar, Mira Road. He was the only son of his parents. His father Prakash Rane is a retired government employee and mother Jyoti Rane a retired deputy principal of a prominent school.Major Kaustubh Rane

  • He always wanted to join the Indian army as an officer to lead in front-line combat, he was inspired by the stories of our war heroes which encouraged him to choose defense forces as a career. On the Republic Day this year, Major Kaustubh Prakash Rane had received the gallantry award, Sena Medal.”

  • Pramod Bhatkar, a close family friend whose son, Pratik, has been Major Rane’s childhood friend, said, “I had known Kaustubh since his childhood. Pratik and Kaustaub grew up together. They went to school together, and later Kaustubh shifted to Pune for his Army training. He was a very kind person since his childhood. I am deeply saddened by his martyrdom, but he has made us and the whole nation proud.

  • A neighbour of the Rane family, said, “His father is my good friend. Major Rane was very studious as a child, a decent man and extremely good at sports. We have been shaken by the news. We have learned that his mortal remains are being brought to Srinagar before being flown to Mumbai.

    Major Kaustubh Prakash Kumar Rane
    Soldiers pay tribute to Major Kaustubh Prakash Kumar Rane, Rifleman Mandeep Singh Rawat, Rifleman Hameer Singh & Gunner Vikram Jeet Singh, who lost their lives in Gurez Sector of J&K during the wreath-laying ceremony at Palam airport in New Delhi.

Soldiers like Major Kaustubh Prakash Rane, Rifleman Mandeep Singh Rawat, Rifleman Hameer Singh, Gunner Vikram Jeet Singh are the real heroes of this country, our heart goes to kids who lost their fathers. Entire life the family will struggle but we are sure will be a proud son. RIP Major May your soul rest in peace.

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