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Cleared SSB Interview In 19th Attempt AIR-12 To Join Indian Army

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Hello defense aspirants, I am SUMIT KUMAR from Ghaziabad. This was my 19th attempt for CDS IMA-144 course. My journey had started in JAN 2012 when I appeared for NDA SSB in Bhopal and got screened out. But I kept attempting continuously. I cleared every single written exam to appear for SSB. But I was not able to clear SSB. In last 6 years I have made 18 attempts. 10 screened outs and 8 conferenced out. In 13th attempt I performed very well but got conferenced out. 14th, 15th, 16th, 17th and 18th attempts I got screened out.  After these many failures, I had nothing to lose. I stopped thinking about my rejection or selection. I just focused on my responses during SSB. Being natural and honest is very difficult because time pressure and selection pressure made us all manipulative.

This time I tried to make my responses more natural and honest.

Coming to 19th attempt

PPDT

I had selected the very 1st batch of IMA SSB commencing from 10th July 2017. 62 were reported, around 10 were sent back due to documentation. Screening started with 52. OIR test, Repeaters do well in this. In PPDT we were shown a picture of a doctor and two ladies standing one behind him and one in front of him. Since, it was monsoon season. So I made a story on widespread of mosquito related diseases in rural areas. I narrated very confidently as I had no pressure of selection/rejection. In Group discussion, I gave 1-2 points. When the result was announced I was the last chest number to be selected and given 32 chest number for 2nd stage.

Listen GTO briefing carefully. Give your narration confidently (irrespective of story). Speak only when you have valid and constructive points. Try to speak at least 1-2 times with valid and constructive points. Don’t speak just for the sake of speaking. Don’t repeat points. If you don’t have points, keep quiet and listen others. Listening will help you to get the matter to speak on.

 

PIQ

In evening we were asked to fill PIQ. Testing for stage 2 starts with filling up of PIQ. Be careful while filling PIQ. You will be asked questions about each and every single word that you write in your PIQ. Be prepared to answer every possible question around every single word written in your PIQ.

Psych

 In My previous attempts, I had so many thoughts in my mind before Psych test. I was worried about the picture/words. I was worried about my responses on negative pictures/words. I was worried about response of Psychologist to my answer. And this much nervousness made me to alter my responses during test. Because of this nervousness, most of the times, I ended up writing a Preconceived story. This nervousness always led me to rejection.

But this time, I didn’t think about negative/positive/neutral even for once. My total focus was on to write a solution oriented story on whatever picture/word shown to me. Not for a single time, I thought about result/evaluation of my responses. I just kept writing my first thought to every pic/word.  I was very calm and chill before the  test and this helped me making my mindset to write a solution oriented story on any picture. This time I didn’t even prepare my SD. I only wrote whatever came to my mind first (truth).cds exam book

TAT

I was very calm before Psych test. My strategy was very simple. Look at the picture very carefully, write a solution oriented story.

  • Write a very simple and very specific story.
  • See the picture carefully. Your story and picture should match.
  • Neither try to fit your story according to pic nor try to manipulate the picture.
  • Use maximum two lines to write the intro part of story.
  • Action part must cover 80% of the story.
  • Write details very specifically. For example: he pressed wound before dressing it using medical kit available in Bike. Or he did the soil test. Normal range was 4-5 but result showed 6 indicating the acidic nature of soil. Or He placed and changed a wet cloth on forehead to cure 105 degree Fahrenheit fever. These specific details make a special impression on your story. These details bring genuinity to the stories.
  • Keep PIQ in your mind while writing stories/responses. Suppose you are making a story on preparation of a presentation on a subject related to economics. But you have done graduation in science. So try to write a story on science related subject only.
  • Write all and complete stories.

WAT

Practice beforehand .Don’t be nervous. Prepare yourself to write responses on any word. Calmness in your mind while writing WAT is the key to success. Try to write all 60 sentences.

SRT

Write your own responses. Don’t write the responses of others. For example: your response to a situation was that you would convince and during Group Discussions you were exactly opposite to what you wrote. It is contradictory. So write your natural/own responses to situations. Don’t skip SRTs in between. Keep it short and qualitative in nature. Here quality matters more than quantity. But still try to attempt as many SRTs as you can.

SD

Avoid writing fancy words like hardworking, honest, responsible, etc.

GTO

 Your first and last aim should be the progress of your  group. If Group wins, you win. Group loses, you lose. Don’t get personal during any task at any point of time. It’s the group that matters, not the individual.

GD & GPE

  • It’s a discussion, not a debate.
  • Put your views with justification. If someone counters then give justification one more time and move on.
  • Avoid heated arguments in GD.
  • Sometime what happens is that we are discussing on India and suddenly after a moment we are discussing on Jupiter (away from track). Make sure you are having discussion on right topic. Make sure you are on right track.
  • Speak only when you have valid and constructive points otherwise listen others. Believe me, Listening to others is the most enjoyable thing SSB.
  • It’s not necessary to stick to your plan only. If others’ plan is good, support them. Because Group as a whole matters.

PGT, HGT

Listen to GTO briefing very carefully. While briefing, he also indicates the solution. When he says “ This circle is movable Or there is a cut here etc.” he simply tells you that solution lies here.

3rd and 4th PGT are relatively tough. Try to give ideas in 3rd and 4th PGT. Keep calm.

SNAKE RACE, IO

Avoid injuries. Enjoy these tasks to fullest.

COMMAND TASK

Don’t be nervous.  Solution is always there. Think calmly. Take your time. GTO will create time pressure. Ignore him whenever he says like you are left with 1 minute or 30 sec etc.

FGT

 Give your ideas otherwise support the group.

INTERVIEW

 I was the last to be interviewed. My interview was on the evening of GTO day 2. It was dark in room ( electricity cut due to rainy season). Hardly we were able to see each other. His first question

IO: Good evening Sumit. You have been here for 19 times. You must have written some books on SSB.

ME (smiling): no sir. But I gave suggestions to two of my friends and they got recommendation.

IO: They are in the academy but you are still here.

Me (smiling): yes sir! I am still here with you.

IO: okay Sumit. Now I am giving you a chance to write a book on SSB. What will you write in that book?

Me: I told him everything that I have written in this success story.

 Interview went for 30 min (approx.). He asked about my strengths I replied “never give up attitude”, “always ready with helping hand” “polite in nature”. He asked the reason for rejections. I told him that I wrote “preconceived stories” and I was “Under confident”.  He asked,”what about this time?” I said,” this time I wrote whatever came to mind firstly. And yes over the time I improved my confidence.” To a question I replied that SSB taught me a lot of things. For me it’s not only a selection procedure but a learning process also. It taught how to rise after so many failures. It taught me how to introspect. It taught how to communicate. It taught me how to handle pressure situations calmly and many more things.

Your PIQ plays an important role in interview. You must be  able to justify your answers. Support your answers with real life examples. For ex. If you say that you are calm. Support this by telling him an incident where your calmness helped you. So, be ready with real life incidents.

CONFERENCE

Even that day I was not thinking about selection/rejection. Our conference was in reverse order. I was the first one to be called in. Chest no 32 displayed on the digital display. Like my previous attempts, they took just 30-40 seconds to call me in. Which means rejection in my case.

IO (smiling): How was your performance?

Me: Sir, It was average.

IO (smiling): not good? Not excellent?

Me: I could have done better in GTO sir.

IO (serious tone): Sumit, You have been here for 19 times. Do you want more attempts? Do you want to make it 23 or 24?

(I was thinking that if he said 23 and 24. I should reply with little fewer attempts.)

Me: No sir. I think I will get a recommendation in 20th or 21st attempt.

Then he asked me about stay and food to which I replied positively.  As I was coming out of conference room, I was thinking what a blunder I had done because I just told them indirectly that I was not going to recommend in that attempt (19th). I was thinking if there were certain chances for my recommendation, I have vanished them with a single reply. None the less I was calm but this was the first time when I was sure of my rejection. So I took a good nap because I needed to awake in return train journey.

After 1 hour my friend woke me up. Yes, it was result time. Major rank officer was announcing the result. Chest no 4, everyone clapped (he is a brilliant chap). Chest no 15 (he is polite and calm like me) again every one clapped. Chest no 26 and chest no 29(we were sure about their selection).  I thought that was it and I was ready to move out but Major looked down to his folder he was reading something (means there is another candidate. Who was it 30, 31 or 32 that was me) he looked up announced chest no 32. I rose up announced my name and UPSC roll no. As I was moving to selected candidates, my eyes were wide open I was completely black out. I didn’t know what was happening there. Tears started rolling down my cheeks. Tip..Tip..Tip..and suddenly I was bursting into tears.

To Prepare for CDS SSB Interview Get

For Current Affairs Preparation Download

Indian Naval Academy Passing Out Parade 22 Nov 2017

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navy pop 22 nov

A total of 328 midshipmen and cadets, including two from abroad, today passed out of the Indian Naval Academy at Ezhimala in the district on completion of their courses.

Two cadets one each from Tanzania and Maldives and 20 women cadets from the Indian Navy were among those who took part in the passing out parade reviewed by Naval chief Admiral Sunil Lanba.

The passing out midshipmen and cadets belonged to four different courses, inclulding Naval orientation and B.Tech, of Autumn Term 2017, a Naval release said.

The cadets will proceed to various Naval and Coast Guard ships/establishments, to further consolidate their training in specialised fields.

Admiral Lanba after a ceremonial review awarded medals to nine meritorious midshipmen and cadets and advised them to imbibe and follow the core values of Navy duty, honour and courage .

INA Commandant Vice Admiral S V Bhokare and other senior officers were among those present.Indian Navy POP 8 Indian Navy POP 7 Indian Navy POP 6 Indian Navy POP 5 Indian Navy POP 4 Indian Navy POP 3 Indian Navy POP 2 Indian Navy POP 1

The President s Gold Medal for the INA BTech course was awarded to Midshipman Rishav Saha, while the Chief of the Naval Staff Gold Medal for the Naval Orientation (Extended) Course was awarded to Cadet Anil Choudhary.

The Chief of the Naval Staff Gold Medal for the Naval Orientation (Regular) Course was awarded to Cadet Gaurav Tyagi.

The Flag Officer Commanding in Chief (South) Medal for the best women cadet was awarded to Cadet Anjani Pandey.

The ceremony culminated in the successful Midshipmen and cadets forming up in two columns and marching with their gleaming swords and rifles held in salute past the academy s saluting dias known as the Quarterdeck.

Meet Sub-Lieutenant Shubhangi Swaroop 1st Ever Woman Indian Navy Pilot

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Shubhangi Swaroop was recommended for 3 entries (army,navy,airforce)- (1) CDS-SSC(W) / Non-Tech, (2) AFCAT – SSC (W) Flying Branch & Ground Duty, (3) SSC (W) / Pilot. In a historic moment, the Indian Navy inducted Shubhangi Swaroop as its first-ever woman pilot. Shubhangi and three other women officers were among the 328 midshipmen and cadets who had passed out of the Ezhimala Naval Academy in Kerala on Wednesday.

While Shubhangi, a native of Uttar Pradesh, will soon be flying Maritime Reconnaissance aircraft, the three other women cadets are also all set to become a part of the Naval Armament Inspectorate (NAI), where no female officer has ever worked. The NAI branch looks after the inspection and assessment of the arms and weapons of the country’s naval force.

Shubhangi, who is the daughter of a Naval commander Gyan Swaroop, will now be at the Air Force Academy in Hyderabad where she will undergo professional training along with the pilots of the Army, Navy and the Air Force. Successful completion of the training will make her the first woman pilot of the Indian Navy.

Sub Lieutenant Shubhangi Swaroop 4 Sub Lieutenant Shubhangi Swaroop 3 Sub Lieutenant Shubhangi Swaroop 2 Sub Lieutenant Shubhangi Swaroop 1

Though Shubhangi is the first Naval woman pilot, the Navy’s Aviation branch has had women officers operating as air traffic control officers and as ‘observers’ in the aircraft who are responsible for communication and weapons, Southern Naval spokesperson Commander Sreedhar Warrier told PTI.

source: indianexpress

How To Prepare:

Indian Coast Guard Assistant Commandant 2018 [APPLY NOW]

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JOIN INDIAN COAST GUARD AS AN ASSISTANT COMMANDANT IN GD, GD(Pilot) AND CPL(SSA) BRANCH EXCELLENT OPPORTUNITY FOR MEN TO BECOME OFFICER IN INDIAN COAST GUARD – 02/2018 BATCH. The Indian Coast Guard, an Armed Force of the Union, offers a challenging career to young and dynamic Indian male candidates for various branches as an Assistant Commandant(Group ‘A’ Gazetted Officer) and invites ‘online’ application.

Branch and Eligibility. Indian citizens having following minimum qualifications are eligible to apply:Assistant CommandantAssistant Commandant 2

Note:

  1. The upper age limit of OBC/SC & ST is relaxable as per Govt. of India rules in vogue.
  2. Maximum 5% relaxation in aggregate in the degree certificate for SC/ST candidates, NCC ’C’ (A grade) holders, Sports person of National level (Inter State & above) and wards of Coast Guard uniform personnel deceased while in service. No relaxation for 12th class marks.
  3. Coast Guard reserves the right to fix the cut off percentage for issue of PSB call up letters.

Additional Eligibility Criteria

  • The candidates failed in Computerised Pilot Selection System/PABT or suspended from flying training at Air Force Academy are not eligible for Pilot branch.
  • Candidates withdrawn on disciplinary grounds from any other service training academy are not eligible to appear.
  • Candidates should not have been arrested, convicted or prosecuted on criminal charges.
  • Only candidates cleared their final year/ final semester exams and completed their degrees are to apply.

How to Apply

  1. Applications will be accepted only ‘Online’ from 18 Nov 17 to 02 Dec 17 up to 1700 hrs for the above branches The important instructions for filling up of online applications are as follows:-
    • The name of the candidate, father/mother’s name and date of birth should be same as mentioned in the 10th class passing certificate. Any mismatch in names & date of birth in the application form is liable for rejection.
    • Indicate exact percentage of 12th and Graduation marks upto two decimals and this is not to be rounded off.
    • Candidates to choose any one venue for PSB out of the options displayed.
    • Filling up with information like personal email ID and Mobile number of the candidate is compulsory. The date, time and venue of the test and other information will be informed through personal email ID/ CG Recruitment website.
    • In case of reserved category applicants, availing age/percentage relaxation, either current or permanent address of online application should be same as the address mentioned in caste/category certificate (SC, ST & OBC). Further in case of OBC non-creamy layer, the category certificate should not be more than 3 financial years old and for such cases renewed/fresh certificate to be produced.
    • To fill up “Online” application the candidates need to logon to the Website www.joinindiancoastguard.gov.inand click on opportunities button. Read the instruction carefully and proceed as given below in the notification:-.

Selection Procedure:

  • Short Listing of Applications. Short listing criteria will be based on higher percentage of marks in the qualifying examination and the qualifying cut off for a particular branch or centre may be increased more than 60% if more applications with higher % are received.
  • Stage -I Preliminary Selection. Shortlisted candidates will be called for Preliminary Selection at given date and time which will consist of Mental Ability Test/ Cognitive Aptitude Test and Picture Perception & Discussion Test (PP&DT). The aptitude tests will be in English only and will be of objective type. During PP&DT the candidates are expected to speak and discuss in English. However, they are free to speak in Hindi if they wish to do so. Date/ time and venue of Preliminary Selection once allotted will not be changed at any stage.

Candidates who have completed their Degree in 2016/2017 should be in possession of Original / Provisional Degree issued by the College/University. Candidates completed their Degree before 2016 must be in possession of Original Degree issued by the University, if not, the candidate must be in a possession of “Non issuance of Degree Certificate” issued / signed from the concerned University only (format available in www.joinindiancoastguard.gov.in). No candidates will be permitted to appear in PSB without above documents in Original. The CGPA should be corroborated with 60% of the total marks as issued from the University.

Final Selection: The candidates who qualify Preliminary Selection will be called for Final Selection. The date and venue for Final Selection Board (FSB) will be uploaded on Indian Coast Guard website www.joinindiancoastguard.gov.in. The Final Selection will consist of Psychological Test, Group Task and Interview (Personality test). All documents/ certificates verified during PSB are also required to be produced in originals during FSB.

Merit List: Recommendation in FSB does not confirm final selection. A merit list will be prepared for the medically fit candidates on the basis of marks obtained by the candidates at FSB and depending upon the availability of vacancies. The number of vacancies may vary from branch to branch and will be decided at a later date depending on the number of training vacancies available at training establishments. The list of candidates selected on the basis of merit list will be uploaded in Coast Guard recruitment website www.joinindiancoastguard.gov.in during first week of Jun 2018. The joining letters will be issued accordingly. The training at INA, Ezhimala is scheduled to commence in end Jun 2018.

APPLICATION WILL BE ACCEPTED ‘ONLINE’ FROM 18 NOV 17 TO 02 DEC 17

How To Prepare:

Read Official Notification

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/Assistant-Commandant-notification.pdf[/pdfviewer]

Indian Navy 10+2 (B Tech) Cadet Entry Scheme 2019 [APPLY NOW]

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INDIAN NAVY 10+2 (B TECH) CADET ENTRY SCHEME 2018 [APPLY NOW]

Indian Navy has published the notification of 10+2 B.Tech Cadet Entry Scheme for the course commencing in January 2020 at Indian Naval Academy. Applications are invited from UNMARRIED MALE CANDIDATES (fulfilling the conditions of nationality as laid down by the Govt. of India) to join the prestigious Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala for a four-year degree course under the 10+2 (B.Tech) Cadet Entry Scheme.

ssbinterviewbook

ELIGIBILITY CONDITIONS:

  • Age: Born between 02 Jul 2000 and 01 Jan 2003 (both dates inclusive).
  • Educational Qualification: Passed Senior Secondary Examination (10+2 Pattern) or its equivalent examinations from any Board with at least 70% aggregate marks in Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics (PCM) and at least 50% marks in English (either in Class X or Class XII).
  • Who can Apply: Candidates who have appeared for JEE (Main) -2019 (for B.E./ B.Tech) exam. Call up for Service Selection Board (SSB) will be issued on the basis of JEE (Main) – 2019 All India Rank.

MEDICAL STANDARDS:

  • All candidates recommended by SSB will have to undergo medicals as per extant regulations. There is no relaxation in medical standard on any ground. Guidelines for physical standards are available on the Indian Navy website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
  • Relaxations in height is permissible to candidates holding domicile of specific regions details of which are available on the Indian Navy website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in.
  • Guidelines for tattoo are available on the Indian Navy website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in

THE NAVY OFFERS YOU:

  • Promotions: The promotion from Sub Lieutenant to Commander is on time scale basis subject to completion of mandatory courses, sea time and medical condition.
  • Pay and Allowances: The admissible pay and allowances alongwith other facilities & privileges are available on Indian Navy website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in
  • Group Insurance & Gratuity: A basic Insurance cover of Rs. One Crore (on contribution) and gratuity will be granted to the officer as per the latest rules in force.
  • Leave Entitlements: On commission, officers are entitled to annual and casual leave as per extent regulations. Leave during training period will be as per the Training Policy in force.
  • Sports & Adventure: The Navy provides facilities for various sports. In addition, one can also learn and participate in adventure sports such as river rafting, mountaineering, hot air ballooning, hand gliding, wind surfing etc.
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SELECTION PROCEDURE:

  • IHQ of MoD(Navy) reserves the right to fix the cut off for shortlisting of applications for SSB based on JEE (Main) All India Rank- 2019. No communication will be entertained on this account. SSB interviews for short listed candidates will be scheduled at Bangalore / Bhopal / Coimbatore / Visakhapatnam/ Kolkata from Aug – Oct 2019.
  • Shortlisted candidates will be informed about their selection for SSB interview on their E-mail or through SMS as provided by candidates in their application form. You are advised to maintain your mobile number and e-mail ID till selection process is over.
  • SSB interview will be conducted in two stages. Stage I test consists of Intelligence test, Picture Perception test and Group Discussion. Candidates who fail to qualify in Stage I will be routed back on the same day. Stage II test comprises Psychological testing, Group testing and Interview which will last for 04 days. Successful candidates will thereafter undergo Medical Examination (approx duration 03-05 days).
  • Change of SSB venue for interview is not permissible.
  • Any correspondence regarding further change of SSB date is to be addressed to the Call up officer of the concerned SSB. Award of fresh dates for SSB would be subject to availability of batches/slots.
  • No compensation will be paid in respect of any injury sustained as a result of tests.
  • AC 3 tier rail fare is admissible for the SSB interview, if appearing for the first time for particular type of commission on production of tickets. Candidates are required to carry photo copy of the first page of bank passbook or cheque leaf where the name, account No. and IFS Code details are mentioned while appearing for SSB.

TRAINING:

  • The training is scheduled to commence in Jan 2020.
  • Candidates recommended by the SSBs and declared medically fit, will be selected for training in Indian Naval Academy Ezhimala, Kerala, based on All India Merit and number of vacancies. All India Merit will be prepared as per SSB marks. Selected Candidates will be inducted as Cadets for the four year B. Tech Course in applied Electronics & Communication Engineering (for Executive Branch), Mechanical Engineering (for Engineering Branch including Naval Architect specialisation) or Electronics & Communication Engineering (for Electrical Branch) as per Naval requirements. On completion of the course, B.Tech Degree will be awarded by the Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU).
  • The entire cost of training, including books and reading material, will be borne by the Indian Navy. The cadets will also be provided with free clothing and messing.
ssbinterviewbook

HOW TO APPLY:

  • Candidates are to register and fill application on the recruitment website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in from 31 May to 17 Jun 2019.
  • Whilst filling up the e-application, it is advisable to keep the relevant documents readily available to enable correct filling up of personal particulars.
  • All relevant documents (preferably in original) Date of birth proof (as per 10th/12th certificates), 10th marksheet, 12th marksheet, JEE (Main)-2019 scorecard (indicating All India Rank) and a recent passport size colour photograph should be scanned in original JPG/FITT format, for attaching the same while filling up the application.
  • If any scanned document is not legible / readable for any reason, the application will be rejected.
  • Print one copy of online application form and carry it along with original certificates/documents as mentioned in Para 22 Note (c) while appearing for SSB interview.

Please read the instructions given on the website carefully before finally submitting your online application. Candidates can call on TollFree Number 1800-419-2929 and press option 7 to speak to a customer care representative from Monday-Sunday between 0800-2000 hrs.

https://www.instagram.com/p/BxwDz6iA7fD/

CDS 2 2017 Question Paper Original [SOLVED]

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CDS 2 2017 written exam was conducted by UPSC on 19th Nov 2017, Sunday. Many young defence aspirants attempted this exam to join Indian Army, Navy and Air Force as an officer. Many candidates who have attempted the CDS 2 2017 exam reported that General Knowledge paper was very tough and most of the current affairs questions were from  2016. English paper was easy and Maths was lengthy but average. If you are looking for CDS 2 2017 question paper, you can download them from below. Also, check CDS 2 2017 answer keys here. 

CDS 2 2017 Course

  • IMA 145 Course
  • SSC 108th 20th OTA,
  • 204th Flying Course 
  • Naval Academy.

CDS 2 2017 Question Paper Solved – UPDATED

 

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Question-Paper-English-PDF.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper GK

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Question-Paper-GK-PDF.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper Maths – Updating

 

CDS 2 2017 SSB Interview Procedure

  • Candidates who will clear the CDS 2 2017 written exam will get a call letter for SSB interview
  • You will get a SSB call based on your preference i.e. IMA, OTA, NA, AFA
  • Even if you clear the exam for more than one preference, you will get only one SSB call based on your top preference
  • You can prepare for SSB interview with these books

 

CDS 2 2017 SET D Answer Keys – English

CDS 2 2017 SET D Answer Keys – Maths

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper English

 

 

CDS 2 2017 English Questions 

Directions :

In this section, you have few short passages. After each passage, you will find some items based on the passage. First, read a passage and answer the items based on it. You are required to select your answers based on the contents of the passage and opinion of the author only.

Passage

For many years, ship captains navigating the waters of Antarctica have been intrigued by sightings of emerald icebergs. Scientists have now explained their mystery. Their icebergs are turned upside down. Icebergs are blocks of ice that have broken off huge slabs of frozen snow called ice shelves. Their green appearance results from seawater that has frozen at the bottom over hundreds of years. The frozen sea water has dissolved organic matter which gives it a yellow tone and the fresh water ‘ice shelf’ above has a blue tinge. When the iceberg turns upside done, it appears green through the visual mix of yellow with the blue from below.

1)  What is the meaning of ‘intrigued’?

(a) Surprised

(b) Fascinated

(c) Muffled

(d) Repulsed

 

2) What are ice shelves?

(a) They are huge pieces of chunks of ice

(b) They are frozen sea water

(c) They are pieces of ice which look like shelves

(d) They are huge pieces of ice which are very old

 

3) What are icebergs?

(a) Huge chunks of ice floating on water

(b) Frozen sea water

(c) Green ice

(d) Green yellow water below and blue above

 

4) When the iceberg turns upside down, it appears

(a) green

(b) yellow

(c) blue

(d) white

 

Passage

In its simple form, science has helped man to protect himself from Nature and to overcome natural obstacles to movement. But with the advance of science, a situation has arisen in which Nature need to be protected from man. He has used Nature’s own gifts, not only of metal but even the human brain, to attack Nature. Forests are being destroyed not only to satisfy the need but to provide luxuries. The evil effects of deforestation are already making themselves clearly felt by climatic changes and soil erosion. Man has at last begun to learn that he has to protect if he wants Nature to protect him

 

5) The use of science in its simple form has helped man to

(a) do such things as building shelter and make carts, boats, etc.

(b) make bombs and missiles

(c) build factories using machinery

(d) make planes

 

6) Nature now needs to be protected from man because

(a) nature has become weak

(b) man is rapidly destroying Nature

(c) man is cruel to animals

(d) man has become irrational

 

7) Forests are being destroyed in order to

(a) provide land for agriculture

(b) provide wood for fuel

(c) kill dangerous animals

(d) provide necessities as well as needless comforts and pleasures

 

8) The evil effect of destroying Nature instead of using it is seen in

(a) the fall in production of our factories

(b) the fall in our standard of living

(c) the unfavorable changes in climate

(d) the frequent occurrence of epidemics

 

9) Climatic changes and soil erosion are results of

(a) scientific developments

(b) nuclear explosion

(c) natural calamity

(d) deforestation

Passage

According to the civil laws of most countries, obedience is no longer the duty of a wife, every woman has the political right to vote, but these liberties remain theoretical as long as she does not have economic freedom. A woman supported by a man is not liberated from the male. It is through gainful employment that woman has traveled most of the distance that separated her from the male, and nothing else can guarantee her liberty in practice.

I once heard a maidservant declare, while cleaning the stone floor of a hotel lobby, “I never asked anybody for anything; I succeeded all by myself.” She was as proud of her self-sufficiency as a Rockefeller, Ford or Birla.

However, the mere combination of the right to vote and a job does not mean complete liberation: working, today, is not a liberty.

A recent study of women workers in a car factory shows that they would prefer to stay in the home rather than work in the factory. The majority of women do not escape from the traditional feminine world. Their jobs at the factory do not relieve them of housekeeping burdens; they get from neither society nor their husbands, the assistance they need to become in concrete fact the equals of men.

 

10) Which of the following helps women

(a) The right to vote

(b) Civil liberties

(c) A job

(d) Wealthy husbands

 

11) Why does the writer talk about the maidservant in the hotel lobby?

(a) The servants of today will one day be freed from their rich masters

(b) A servant can become as rich as Rockefeller or Birla

(c) Even with a low paid job women can achieve equality

(d) Economic independence is necessary for women’s liberation

 

12) In which paragraph does the writer say that it is revealed that some woman would not like to work in the factory?

(a) In paragraph four

(b) In paragraph three

(c) I paragraph two

(d) In paragraph one

 

13) “These liberties” in the first paragraph refer to

(a) The right to vote , not to obey and right to a job

(b) The right to vote and not to obey

(c) The rights of servants to disobey their master and the right of the master to punish them

(d) Women’s right to vote and earn money

 

Passage

During the past three generations, the diseases affecting western societies have undergone dramatic changes. Polio, diphtheria, tuberculosis, commonly known as TB, are vanishing; one injection of an antibiotic often cures deadly diseases such as pneumonia or syphilis, and so many mass killers have come under control that two-thirds of all death is now associated with the diseases of old age. Those who die young are more often than not victims of accidents, violence, or suicide.

These changes in health status are generally equated with the decrease in suffering and attributed to more or better medical care. Almost everyone believes that at least one of his friends would not be alive and well except for the skill of a doctor. But there is, in fact, no evidence of any direct relationship between this change in the pattern or nature of sickness on the one hand and the so-called progress of medicine on the other hand. These changes are the results of political technological changes. They are not related to the activities that require the preparation and status of doctors or the costly equipment in which doctors take pride. In addition, an increase in the number of new diseases in the last fifteen years are themselves the result of medical intervention. They are doctor-made or iatrogenic.

 

14) In the western societies, the occurrences of polio, diphtheria, and tuberculosis has

(a) increased

(b) completely stopped

(c) decreased

(d) continued without changes

 

15) More death are now associated with old age than in the past because

(a) iatrogenic diseases are spreading faster now

(b) deadly diseases affecting the young have been well controlled

(c) Accidents, violence and suicide that killed many youths in the past are now under control

(d) political and technological changes now take better care of the young than the old

 

16) The writer probably is arguing for

(a) stopping the practice of western medicines completely

(b) stopping the use of costly equipment and medicines

(c) rethinking about the successes and failures of the western medicines

(d) giving greater attention to new, iatrogenic diseases than to the old diseases such as polio , diphtheria and pneumonia

Passage

Poverty is a complex problem. It is far more than an economic condition. We measure it usually in terms of income but forget that poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances, including lack of access to information and to basic services like nutritional diet, health care, and education. It results in a loss of cultural identity and destroys traditional knowledge. Poor people become marginalized and suffer from exploitation and loss of human dignity.

 

17) Which of the following sentences comes close to the meaning of the sentence, “Poverty embraces a whole range of circumstances.”

(a) There are lot of angles to poverty

(b) There are several section in the society which are poor

(c) There are several types of poverty

(d) Poverty is solely an economic issue

 

18) What way do you think ‘lack of access to information’ affects poor people?

(a) They don’t get information about how to improve their conditions

(b) They didn’t get newspapers to read at all

(c) They can’t go to school and read books

(d) They don’t get information about schemes of getting ric

 

19) What do you think ‘cultural identity’ is important?

(a) A sense of cultural identity gives people self-respect and confidence

(b) Cultural identity defines the character of poor people

(c) It is important to have cultural identity to get jobs

(d) It is useful to have cultural identity because it brings your success

 

20) Which of the following sentences comes closest to the sentence” Poor people become marginalised”?

(a) They are not given any benefit of nay government schemes

(b) They are ignored by the rich people

(c) They are the most ignored elements of the society

(d) They are the most disposed elements of the society

 

21) What do you think is the tone of the passage?

(a) Objective but querulous

(b) Descriptive and impassioned

(c) Argumentative and critical

(d) Objective and critical

ORDERING OF WORDS IN A SENTENCE

 

Directions :

Each of the following items in this section consists of a sentence the parts of which have been jumbled. These parts have been labeled P, Q, R, and S. Given below each sentence are four sequences namely (a), (b), (c) and (d). You are required to re-arrange the jumbled parts of the sentence and mark your response accordingly.

22) My unmarried aunt     is creating a lot of problems for us     who stays with us

                                                                                 P                                          Q

because of her interfering nature in our personal lives

                                               R

and there is a misunderstanding among family members

                                              S

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q S R P

(b) Q P S R

(c) P Q S R

(d) S P Q R

 

23) No criminal proceeding      in any Court during his term of office

                                                                                        P

whatsoever shall be initiated     or continued against the President    or a Governor

                      Q                                                              R                                              S

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q R S P

(b) P Q R S

(c) Q P S R

(d) S Q P R

 

24) The dentist    with a severe tooth-ache     when he was brought to hospital

                                                   P                                                       Q

  extracted Manish’s tooth                      and relieved his pain

                      R                                                              S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) Q P R S

(c) R S P Q

(d) R Q P S

 

25) The actress   has been selected     as the best heroine

                                            P                                  Q

who is the daughter of a famous male singer       of the year

                                       R                                                       S

The correct sequence should be

(a)  R  P   Q  S

(b)  Q  P  S  R

(c)   Q   S   R  Q

(d)   Q   S   R   P

 

26) Last summer   everyday     kept pestering a pretty girl     one persistent admirer     

                                         P                                  Q                                               R

with phone calls

               S

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q R S P

(b) R S Q P

(c) R Q S P

(d) P Q R S

 

 

 

27) In many cultures      to make wishes come true    that blue has the power    people believe

                                                                 P                                                Q                                     R

and be successful in life

                     S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P S R Q

(b) R S P Q

(c) R Q P S

(d) S Q P R

 

28) From a picnic table    through the playground   while we unpacked a basket

                                                                 P                                             Q

we watched them laugh and leap      bulging with sandwhiches and cookies

                           R                                                                      S

The correct sequence should b

 

(a)   R S Q P

(b) Q  P  R  S

(c) R P Q S

(d) Q S R P

 

 

29) My father retired at the age of 68,  where he had served,   in South Carolina

                                                                                        P                                      Q

as Pastor for 12 years,   from a Baptist Church

                     R                                  S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P R S Q

(b) S Q P R

(c) S P Q R

(d) Q P R S

 

30) The completion      it enables employees to feel a sense of accomplishment

                                                                                  P

and makes them take pride in their work;       of high quality products

                              Q                                                                      R

also enhances employee satisfaction, because

                              S

The correct sequence should b

(a)  P Q R S

(b)  R Q P S

(c)  P S R Q

(d) R S P Q

 

31) But, Kuala Lumpur     where modern Malaya executives    but will never miss Friday prayers

                                                                         P                                                                 Q

might have a cellular phone in hand,   is a city firmly rooted in tradition

                             R                                                                    S

The correct sequence should be

(a)  R Q S P

(b)  S P R Q

(c) R P S Q

(d) S Q R P

 

32) Perhaps the most significant factor     is a failure of planning and

                                                                                                   P

in the growth of all metropolitan crimes,    governance in the urban sprawl

                             Q                                                                  R

including crimes against the elderly,

                             S

The correct sequence should be

(a)   Q  S   P  R

(b)   P  R  Q  S

(c)   Q   R   P  S

(d)   P  S  Q  R

 

33) He said that    a small college    he’d rather go to    not studying at all   instead of

                                         P                              Q                                R                            S

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q  S  P  R

(b) P   R  Q  S

(c) Q  P  R  S

(d) Q  P  S  R

 

34) Teaching a child    since there  are few    is becoming  difficult  and expensive

                                                         P                                                  Q

open ponds around    how to swim

             R                                  S

The correct sequence should be

 

(a) S   Q   P  R

(b) Q   R   S  P

(c)  S  R  Q  P

(d) P   R  Q  S

 

35) The doctor  able to find out   what had caused   the food poisoning   had not been

P                              Q                                  R                             S

The correct sequence should be

(a) S  P  R  Q

(b) P  R  Q  S

(c) P  R  S  Q

(d) S  P  Q  R

 

36) The officer      was suspended    being corrupt   from service     before his dismissal

                                            P                           Q                          R                              S

The correct sequence should be

(a)  Q  P  S  R

(b)   Q  P  R  S

(c)  R  S  Q  P

(d) R  S  P  Q

 

37) She gave     her old coat      to  a  beggar         the one with the brown fur on it      shivering with cold

                                     P                        Q                                                  R                                              S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P  R   Q  S

(b) S  Q  P  R

(c) P  Q  R  S

(d) R  P  Q  S

 

38) The medical teams   at the ground said that the injured    by the surging crowds,

                                                                         P                                                    Q

included women and children     who were trampled

                         R                                             S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P R Q S

(b) P Q R S

(c) Q P R S

(d) P S Q R

 

39) He at the hurdles on his way    who has his eyes    does not look     fixed  on the goal

                            P                                             Q                              R                            S

The correct sequence should be

(a) P  Q  R  S

(b) S  R  P  Q

(c) Q  S  R  P

(d) R  Q  P  S

 

40) We do not know when   but we know    the exact date of his death    for certain

                                                             P                                     Q                                   R

Shakespeare was born

               S

The correct sequence should be

(a)  S  P   R  Q

(b) P   Q  R  S

(c) P  S  Q  R

(d) S  R  Q  P

 

41) The purpose is to advance knowledge   the two have to work together   and disseminate it

                                  P                                                                  Q                                            R

at university  is essentially a community of students and teachers

                                                             S

The correct sequence should be

(a) S  R  Q  P

(b) S  P  Q  R

(c) P  Q  R  S

(d) S  Q  P  R

 

WORD SUBSTITUTION

Directions :

For the expression which has been underlined in each of the following sentences, choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d) which most nearly expresses its meaning.

 

42) The institution decided to given Mrs. Roy’s job to her son not because she was a social worker, but because she had died in harness.

(a) died after retirement

(b) died before retirement

(c) died while riding a horse

(d) died for a great cause

 

43) Your ambition should be in consonance with your capabilities

(a) parallel to

(b) in accordance with

(c) in harmony with

(d) in tune with

 

44) I could not go up in life for want of proper guidance

(a) for lack of

(b) for need of

(c) for the desire of

(d) for the necessity of

 

45) Though he was arrogant , I could not dispense with his services.

(a) terminate

(b) align with

(c) claim

(d) disregard with

 

46) In spite of his work, he was made a scapegoat for the failure of the project.

(a) freed from any responsibility for

(b) suspected of causing

(c) blamed without reason for

(d) was severely punished for

 

47) If food supply fails to keep pace with population , civilization will collapse

(a) to grow along with

(b) to walk side by side

(c) to gain momentum

(d) to move at the same speed as

 

ANTONYMS

Directions :

Each item in this section consists of a sentence with an underlined word followed by four words. Select the word that is opposite in meaning to the underlined word and mark your response in your Answer Sheet accordingly.

48) Whether the rewards are in commensurate with the efforts or not, a society will always have workaholics and the shirk work groups.

(a) disproportionate

(b) equal to

(c) matched

(d) unparalleled

 

49) Wars leave behind a large number of emaciated soldiers in the camps of both the victorious and the vanquished

(a) hefty

(b) thin

(c) disillusioned

(d) determined

 

50) There was a mammoth gathering to listen to the leader.

(a) negligible

(b) tiny

(c) poor

(d) large

 

51) The audience thoroughly enjoyed the hilarious drama

(a) amusing

(b) delightful

(c) serious

(d) momentous

 

52) The writer’s erudition in science is revealed in every page of the book.

(a) unenlightened

(b) ignorance

(c) intelligence

(d) hollowness

 

53) The seminar which Ravi organised proved to be momentous event.

(a) trivial

(b) futile

(c) vain

(d) useless

 

54) The question is not whether the court vindicates him with regard to his involvement in the case, but how he feels about it.

(a) reprieves

(b) absolves

(c) indicts

(d) summons

 

55) In those days many monarchs enjoyed vast ecclesiastical powers

(a) permanent

(b) temporal

(c) contemporary

(d) constitutional

 

FILL IN THE BLANK

Directions :

Each of the following sentences in this section has a blank space and four words or group of words given after the sentence. Select which ever word or group of words yo consider most appropriate for the bank space and indicate your response on the Answer Sheet accordingly.

56) With the less rapid expansion of the economy, we should make ______ progress toward stable price levels.

(a) detailed

(b) substantial

(c) definite

(d) infinite

 

57) At times he gets very angry, and then no one can ______ him

(a) prevent

(b) humour

(c) mollify

(d) satisfy

 

58) Many people today have fallen into utter confusion of values with the result that they cannot ______ the good from the bad

(a) divide

(b) differentiate

(c) see

(d) alter

 

59) If Mohan ______ at 5 a.m., he would not have missed the train

(a) started

(b) had started

(c) would start

(d) has started

 

60) His property was divided ______ his daughters and sons.

(a) between

(b) among

(c) from

(d) with

 

61) His persistence in his misdemeanours has lowered him in the ______ of everyone who knows him.

(a) eyes

(b) estimation

(c) estimate

(d) esteern

 

62) The clouds of suspicion will clear ______ soon

(a) up

(b) away

(c) off

(d) by

 

63) The teachers said that they were no longer prepared to ______ the ways of the new Headmaster.

(a) put over with

(b) put on with

(c) put up with

(d) put up to

 

64) ______ the construction of new housing units at the rate of one every month, there is still a shortage of accomodation

(a) Through

(b) Despite

(c) By

(d) For

 

65) Democracy requires the equal right of all to the development of such capacity for good as nature has ______ them with

(a) presented

(b) endowed

(c) fortified

(d) replenished

 

ORDERING OF SENTENCES

Directions :

In this section each item consists of six sentences of a passage. The first and sixth sentences are given in the beginning as S1 and S6 . The middle for sentences in each have been jumbled up and labelled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark your response accordingly on the Answer Sheet.

66) S1 : Egypt lies in the north- east corner of Africa.

S6 : The whole country depends on the water of the Niles

P : Most of it is desert or semi – desert

Q : It has very little rainfall

R : It is four times as big as Great Britain in size.

S : Only a twenty-fifth of the total area is cultivable.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q  R S

(b) S R P Q

(c) R P S Q

(d) Q P R S

 

67)  S1  : In mechanical efforts , you improve by perpetual practice.

S6 : There is neither excuse nor temptation for the latter.

P : He cannot go on shooting wide or falling short, and still fancy that he is making progress.

Q : This is so because the object to be attained is a matter of actual experiment in which you either succeed or fail

R : He must either correct his aim, or persevere in his error with his eyes open

S : If a man aims at a mark with bow and arrow, he must either hit it or aim it.

The correct sequence should be

(a)  P S Q R

(b) R P S Q

(c) S Q R P

(d) Q S P R

 

68)  S1 : Isaac’s mother married again

S6 : He had a set of little tools and saw of various sizes made by himself.

P : But he was known to be very clever at making things.

Q : She sent him to school.

R : Isaac was left to the care of his good old grandmother.

S : In his early years Isaac did not appear to be a very bright student.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R  Q  S P

(b) Q  R  S  P

(c) S  Q  R  P

(d) R  P  Q  S

 

69) S1 : The examination system must be regarded as the chief wrecker of young nerves.

S6 : If I become a Vice-Chancellor, my first act would be to abolish all examination in my university

P : It makes me jump out of the bed, all in a sweat.

Q : It does this by building up a tension, for a part of the year, all through one’s youth.

R : And after four decades, the same nervousness sometimes recurs to me in nightmares

S : I remember the desperate nervousness that used to grip me from January to April every year.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R P Q S

(b) R S P Q

(c) R Q P S

(d) Q S R P

 

70) S1 : History is a subject that is so little valued today that it is almost impossible to win world fame as a historian ; yet that is exactly what Toynbee was able to.

S6 : Among the civilizations that he studied was that of India.

P : We usually think of history as a chronological account of the development of various states and empires under ruler.

Q : Toynbee’s view of history was different

R : He tries to find the pattern behind the birth, growth and decay of civilization.

S : Though he used the recorded history of mankind, but he was interested not merely in the chronology of single states or group but in the rise and fall of whole civilizations.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P  S  Q  R

(b) Q  S  P  R

(c) S  Q  R  P

(d) P  Q  S  R

 

71)  SI  : Science first began to become important after A.D. 1500

S6 : Men read them, became inquisitive again, and began to want to find things out.

P : As a result of this , books came to be circulated.

Q : During the Middle Ages the coming of Science was hindered by the Church

R : In the middle of the fifteenth century , however , the Turks captured the city of Constantinople and the Greek books were scattered far and wide.

S : It considered free inquiry into the nature of things to be wicked.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P  Q  S  R

(b) Q  S  R  P

(c) S  R  P  Q

(d) R  P  Q  S

 

72) S1 : Phatik was a mischievous boy of fourteen

S6 : Ultimately he distinguished himself as a scholar.

P : It was then that Phatik’s uncle offered to take the boy to Kolkata.

Q : She was much worried about his education

R : His mother found it difficult to bring him up.

S : Away from his home Phatik became sober and industrious

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) S R Q P

(c) R S P Q

(d) R Q P S

73) S1 : Whenever I met Baba Amte I was reminded of an anecdote my grandmother used to tell me

S6 : He forgot that he had made it.

P : He once made an idol of God

Q : As the idol was nearing completion, the sculptor was becoming more and more withdrawn into himself.

S : There was a great sculpto.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q R S

(b) S R P Q

(c) S P Q R

(d) Q P R S

 

74) S1 : Ross sent an account of his work, together with slide and specimens to Manson.

S6 : Ross was elected a fellow of the Royal Society in1901

P : They produced a profound sensation

Q : In July 1898, Manson described Ross’s results to the British Medical Association.

R : The President of the Royal Society came to Manson’s house and inspected Ross’s materials and said that ‘it was of remarkable interest and value’.

S : When Manson had finished, the whole audience rose and cheered.

(a) R S P Q

(b) P S R Q

(c) Q P S R

(d) S P Q R

 

75) S1  : Civilization dawned when early man learnt how to produce heat and energy by burning wood.

S6 : When they have been used, they cannot be replaced.

P : Then steam was used to produce electricity.

Q : In this century great use has been made of oil and natural gas and the use of atomic reactors also has provided another source of energy.

R : Much later, the first industrial revolution was based on the production of steam by burning coal.

S : But none of these fuels is renewable

The correct sequence should be

(a) P R Q S

(b) R Q S P

(c) R P Q S

(d) R P S Q

 

76) S1 : Ghost is a subject which baffles everyone everywhere throughout  the world.

S6 : Yet it is a subject which has held people spellbound and the belief in them continues to flourish

P : But human beings have always been curious to know more about them.

Q : Needless to say, such attempts have proved to be useless

R : There have been attempts even to photograph these creatures of darkness.

S : Even after the advancement of science, the reality of ghosts remains a mystery till this day.

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q  R  P  S

(b) S  Q  P  R

(c) S  P  R  Q

(d) S  Q  R  P

 

77) S1 : There have been two schools of thought which deal with the errors of learners.

S6 : Both views are popular today but the second is gaining ground fast.

P : The philosophy of the second school is that errors are natural and they will occur in any learning

Q : So errors, they say, is a sign of faulty teaching methods.

R : The first school maintains that if teaching methods are perfect, errors will never occur.

S : They argue that we should concentrate on how to deal with errors, instead of on method of teaching

The correct sequence should be

(a)  Q S R P

(b) P S Q R

(c) Q P S R

(d) R Q P S

 

78) S1 : Down the stair way of the Holiday Inn hotel, I enter the conference hall.

S6 : Some are leaning against the sidewall

P : I take a seat in the back row as more chairs are quietly slipped in for late corners

Q : The hall is already packed with delegates.

R : Still quite a few people are left standing

S : Most of the delegates are executives of Indian or Indo-US companies

The correct sequence should be

(a) S Q  R P

(b) P R Q S

(c) S R Q P

(d) Q S P R

 

79) S1 : A sportsman is noted for his sense of discipline

S6 : Once discipline is accrued in the play field, it can be applied and practised in other spheres of life

P : The first lesson in discipline is to win without pride and to lose without bitterness

Q : One is no longer swayed by the sudden gusts of passion

R : Then, one must learn that error or selfishness will disgrace and endanger the rest.

S : A sense of equanimity brings order and method into the life of the people.

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q P R S

(b) R P S P

(c) P Q S R

(d) P R S Q

 

80) S1 : Mr. and Mrs. Robert went home late last night

S6 : Mr. Robert rushed to the police station immediately

P : Somebody had broken open the lock

Q : To their dismay they found all their things missing.

R : They got into the house with a lot of fear

S : When they reached home they found the front door open

The correct sequence should be

(a) R S P Q

(b) S P R Q

(c) Q S R P

(d) R Q P S

 

81) S1 : The miseries of the world cannot be cured by physical help only

S6 : Then alone will misery ease in the world.

P : Let men have light, let them be strong and educated

Q : No amount of physical help will remove them completely

R : Until man’s nature changes, his physical needs will always rise, and miseries will always be felt.

S : The only solution is to make mankind enlightened.

The correct sequence should be

(a) Q P R S

(b) R Q S P

(c) S P Q R

(d) P Q R S

 

82) S1 : Aristotle worked under limitations

S6 : The age was not a period of experiment

P : Physical events were mostly attributed to the intervention of God.

Q : There had been little industrial invention in Greece, perhaps because slave labour was cheap and plentiful

R : The only equipment he had for his study was a ruler and compass and some crude instruments.

S : The facts on which modern theories of science have been based had not been discovered.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R P Q S

(b) R S P Q

(c) Q S R P

(d) S Q R P

 

83) S1 : The bus sped along the road

S6 : The dog wailed for a long time

P : But the bus could stop only after covering a few yards.

Q : It injured the dog in the leg.

R : The driver applied the brake

S : Suddenly a stray dog ran on to the middle of the road

The correct sequence should be

(a) S P R Q

(b) S R P Q

(c) R P Q S

(d) P R S Q

 

84) S1 : The status of women in our country is, on the whole , far from high

S6 : Education can lift women out of the depths of misery and ignorance into which they have sunk.

P : But the plight of women in villages is still miserable

Q : The educated women in cities enjoy equality with the men folk.

R : The movement for the freedom and right of women has certainly been steadily gaining momentum.

S : Their education has been thoroughly neglected.

The correct sequence should be

(a) R P Q S

(b) R Q P S

(c) S Q P R

(d) S P Q R

 

85) S1 : Hieun-tsang became a Buddhist monk at the age of twelve and soon discovered that the Buddhist texts available in China were insufficient.

S6 : But he was on a quest and returned after a while to his motherland with a rich collection of texts, documents and relics

P : Wherever he went, he was asked by the local rulers and monks to stay in the place.

Q : He entered India through Kashmir, where he spent some time in Srinagar

R : He therefore decided to go on a pilgrimage to India to collect further material

S : From India, he attempted to go to Ceylon, but gave up the attempt.

The correct sequence should be

(a) P Q S R

(b) R S P Q

(c) Q S R P

(d) R Q S P

SPOTTING ERRORS

Directions :

Each item in this section with three underlined parts labelled (a) , (b) and (c) . Read each sentence to find out whether there is any error in any underlined part and indicate your response  in the Answer Sheet against the corresponding letter i.e., (a) or (b) or (c) . If you find no error, your response should be indicated as (d).

96) It is identification with the audience

                                    (a)

that makes one come home from the play so much more

                                              (b)

satisfied than one ever is after merely passive enjoyment of the show    No error

                                                     (c)                                                                                                 (d)

 

97) CV Raman was one of the greatest sons of India         who has earned everlasting fame

                                           (a)                                                                                  (b)

for scientific researches                          No error

                  (c)                                                   (d)

 

98) This box    is heavy than    the other one     No error

            (a)                  (b)                   (c)                        (d)

 

99) The      writer does not have the freedom      to choose his own themes,

                                          (a)                                                             (b)

society thrusts  them on him                  No error

                    (c)                                                 (d)

 

100) No one knows   as to why he did it,  or who was behind his doing it   No error

                 (a)                           (b)                                           (c)                                     (d)

 

101) How long   you  are     in this profession ?    No error

               (a)             (b)                     (c)                            (d)

 

102) I know that    ignorance is not bliss     yet I am ignorant in many things.    No error

               (a)                           (b)                                                     (c)                                       (d)

 

103) You are     just sixteen years old,     isn’t it ?    No error

              (a)                       (b)                             (c)               (d)

 

104) The old widower,     living in remittances from his sons,    could not make both ends meet    

                  (a)                                                (b)                                                                   (c)

No error

   (d)

 

105) Debate about biotechnology and genetic engineering    is under way around the world,

                                                        (a)                                                                       (b)

and India is fully engrossed with the discussion.     No error

                                      (c)                                                                    (d)

 

106) I like to     listen the song of the nightingale     in the evening    No error

             (a)                                     (b)                                           (c)                    (d)

 

107) Each student      from amongst the hundred students in the class     want to watch this movie

               (a)                                                             (b)                                                               (c)

No error

     (d)

 

108) Although there is virtually no production in India,    the Encyclopaedia Britannica estimate

                                                   (a)                                                                                  (b)

that India has perhaps the largest accumulated stocks of silver in the world    No error

                                                      (c)                                                                                       (d)

109) We have to reach    there at ten   will you please walk little faster   No error

                      (a)                          (b)                                      (c)                                       (d)

 

110) It is almost difficult,      in case impossible,      to keep awake late after dinner.   No error

                     (a)                                       (b)                                                 (c)                                 (d)

 

111) What most students need, above all else    is practice in writing     

                                        (a)                                                      (b)                                

and particularly in writing things that matter to them.       No error

                                        (c)                                                                   (d)

 

112) She was out of the mind,    when she made that plan to go abroad

                          (a)                                                           (b)

without taking into consideration her present family position.    No error

                                             (c)                                                                        (d)

 

113) Are you    through with    that newspaper?    No errror

            (a)                (b)                            (c)                        (d)

 

114) My college    is besides    the lake      No error

                (a)                 (b)             (c)                  (d)

 

115) The Department of Fine Arts has been criticised     for not having much required courses

                                                       (a)                                                                        (b)

Scheduled for this semester.       No errror

                      (c)                                    (d)

 

116) If you have thought about the alternatives,     you would not have chosen

                                         (a)                                                                       (b)

such a difficult topic for the term paper.   No error

                               (c)                                             (d)

 

117) The duties of the secretary are     to take the minutes, mailing the correspondence,

                                (a)                                                                      (b)

and calling the members before meeting.    No error

                               (c)                                                (d)

 

118) If I was you,     I would not go to film       in my mother’s absence.    No error

               (a)                                (b)                                         (c)                                 (d)

 

119) Those of us who have a family history of heart disease     should make a yearly appointment

                                                     (a)                                                                                (b)

with their doctors      No error

          (c)                             (d)

 

120) The old furniture’s     was disposed of     and the new ones were placed .   No error

                       (a)                                (b)                                           (c)                                  (d)

 

CDS 2 2017 GK Questions

 

 

1) A person is standing on a frictionless horizontal ground. How can he move by a certain distance on this ground?

(a) By sneezing

(b) By jumping

(c) By running

(d) By rolling

 

2) In the reaction between hydrogen sulphate ion and water

HSO4–  +  H2O → H3O + SO42-

the water acts as

(a) an acid

(b) a base

(c) a salt

(d) an inert medium

 

3) How many hydrogen atoms are contained in 1.50 g of glucose (C6H12O6)?

(a) 3.01 x 1022

(b) 1.20 x 1023

(c) 2.40 x 1023

 

4) The paste of a white material in water is used to maintain a fractured bone fixed in place. The white material used is called.

(a) bleaching powder

(b) plaster of Paris

(c) powder of zinc oxide

(d) lime powder

 

5) Which one of the following types of glasses is used for making optical instruments?

(a) Pyrex glass

(b) Soft glass

(c) Hard glass

(d) Flint glass

 

6) Most ozone gas (about 90%) is located in the atmospheric layer of

(a) ionosphere

(b) troposphere

(c) stratosphere

(d) mesosphere

 

7) What are the main constituents of biogas?

(a) Methane and sulphur dioxide

(b) Methane and carbon dioxide

(c) Methane , hydrogen and nitric oxide

(d) Methane and nitric oxide

 

8) In which two Indian States of the four mentioned below, it is necessary to hold certain minimum educational qualifications to be eligible to contest Panchayat Elections?

  1. Punjab
  2. Haryana
  3. Karnakata
  4. Rajastahan

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

 

9) Which of the following statements about ‘delegation’ is/are correct?

  1. It is the abdication of responsibility.
  2. It means conferring of specified authority by a lower authority to a higher one.
  3. It is subject to supervision and review.
  4. It is a method of dividing authority in the organization.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1, 2 and 4

 

10) Which of the following features were borrowed by the Constitution of India from the British Constitution?

  1. Rule of Law
  2. Law making Procedure
  3. Independence of Judiciary
  4. Parliamentary

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4

 

11) Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India has fixed the number of Members of the Rajya Sabha to be elected from each State?

(a) Fifth Schedule

(b) Third Schedule

(c) Sixth Schedule

(d) Fourth Schedule

 

12) Which one of the following statements about various horticulture crops of India for the year 2016 – 17 is not correct?

(a) The area under horticulture crops has increased over previous year

(b) Fruit production during the current year is higher than the previous year

(c) Rate of increase in onion production is more than potato production in the current year in comparison to the previous year

(d) The major tomato-growing States are Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh , Karnataka, Odisha and Gujarat.

 

13) The phenomenon of ‘demographic dividend’ of a country relates to

(a) a sharp decline in total population

(b) an increase in working age population

(c) a decline in infant mortality rate

(d) an increase in sex ratio

 

14) Arrange the following events in sequential order as they happened in India :

  1. Mahalanobis Model
  2. Plan Holiday
  3. Rolling Plan

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2, 3

(b) 3, 2, 1

(c) 2, 3, 1

(d) 1, 3, 2

 

15) The monetary policy in India uses which of the following tools?

  1. Bank rate
  2. Open market operations
  3. Public debt
  4. Public revenue

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 , 3 and 4

 

16) Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial if prices of

(a) domestic goods remain constant

(b) exports become cheaper to importers

(c) imports remain constant

(d) exports rise proportionality

 

 

Directions :

The following five (5) items consist of two statements , Statement 1 and Statement II , Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below.

Code :

  1. a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
  2. b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
  3. c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
  4. d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

 

17) Statement I :

Skin cancer is generally caused by the ultraviolet radiation.

Statement II :

Stratosphere allows ultraviolet radiation to enter the earth from the sun.

Answer B 

  1. b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

 

18) Statement I :

The interior part of Maharashtra does not receive adequate rain in the summer season.

Statement II :

The interior part of Maharashtra lies in the rain shadow of the Western Ghats.

Answer A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

 

19) Statement I :

Global warming signifies the rise in global surface temperature.

Statement II :

The increase of concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere causes the rise in global surface temperature.

Answer A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

20) Statement I :

The Communists left the All India Trade Union Congress in 1931.

Statement II :

By 1928, the Communists were no longer working with the mainstream national movement.

 

21) Statement I :

The early Aryans, who were essentially pastoral, did not develop any political structure which could measure up to a State in either ancient or modern sense.

Statement II :

Kingship was the same as tribal chief ship; the term Rajan being used for tribal chief who was primarily a military leader and who ruled over his people and not over any specified area.

Answer A: Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.

 

22) Which one of the following peasant struggles was an outcome of British opium policy ?

(a)  Phulaguri Dhawa [1861]

(b)  Birsaite Ulgulan [1899- 1900]

(c)  Pabna Revolt [1873]

(d)  Maratha Peasant Uprising [1875]

 

23) Which one of the following statements about the Sayyid brothers during the period of Later Mughals is not true ?

(a)  They brought Jahandar Shah to power

(b)  They wielded administrative power.

(c)  They followed a tolerant religious policy.

(d)  They reached an agreement with King Shahu.

 

24) Which of the following statements with regard to the heterodox sect between sixth and fourth century BC are correct ?

  1. The jain ideals were already being circulated in the seventh century BC by Parshava.
  2. Although Buddhism, and to a lesser extent Jainism, took account of the changes in material life and reacted against orthodoxy, neither of these sought to abolish the caste system.
  3. The first female disciple of Mahavira is said to have been a captured slave woman.
  4. Buddha held that nuns could attain spiritual liberation just like a monk and granted them an equal status in the mendicant order.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a)  1, 2, 3, and 4

(b)  1, 2 and 3 only

(c)  1, 2 and 4 only

(d)  3 and 4 only

 

25) Which one of the following combinations of year and event concerning the French Revolution is correctly matched ?

(a) 1789 : Napoleonic Code

(b)  1791 : Tennis Court Oath

(c)  1792 : National Convention

(d)  1804 : New Constitution of France.

 

26) Who among the following is the author of the book, The Social Contract ?

(a)  Voltaire

(b)  Hobbes

(c)  Locke

(d)  Rousseau

 

27) Who among the following is the recipient of the Jnanpith Award, 2016 ?

(a)  Shankha Ghosh

(b)  Raghuveer Chaudhari

(c)  Pratibha Ray

(d)  Rehman Rahi

 

28) The Sustainable Development Goals [SDFs], which were adapted by the UNO in place of the Millennium Development Goals [MGDs] 2015, aim to achieve the 17 goals by the year.

(a)  2020

(b)  2030

(c)  2040

(d)  2050

 

29) Teejan Bai, a recipient of the M.S. Subbulakshmi Centenary Award, 2016, is an exponent in

(a)  Kannanda classical vocal

(b)  Kajari dance

(c)  Bihu dance

(d)  Pandavani, a traditional performing art.

 

30) Who among the following is the recipient of the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2016 ?

(a)  Nana Patekar

(b)  Manoj Kumar

(c)  Javed Akhtar

(d)  K.Viswanath

 

31) Which one of the following statements about the all India Services is correct ?

(a)  The All India Services may be created by an Act of the Parliament.

(b)  The endorsement of the Rajya Sabha is not essential for the creation of the All India Services.

(c)  The rules of recruitment to the All India Services are determined by the UPSC.

(d)  The conditions of service to the All India Services may be altered by the UPSC.

 

32) Which one of the following statements about emergency provisions under the Constitution of India is not correct ?

(a)  The powers of the Union Executive extend to giving directions to the States concerning the exercise of their powers.

(b)  The Union Executive can issue a provision relating to reduction of salaries of employees of the state Governments.

(c)  Governors have no emergency powers like the President of India.

(d)  If the Governor of a State is satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of the State is threatened, he may declare financial emergency in the State.

 

33) The National Handloom Day is observed on

(a)  7th June

(b)  17th July

(c)  7th August

(d)  17th September

 

34) Venus, the first environment research satellite, was launched in August 2017 by which one of the following countries ?

(a)  India

(b)  Russia

(c)  China

(d)  Israel

 

35) Which one of the following was the theme of the World Environment Day, 2017 ?

(a)  Green Economy : Does it include you ?

(b)  Connecting people to Nature

(c)  Think, Eat, save

(d)  Many Species, One Planet, One Future.

 

36) The all-women expedition of Indian Navy to circumnavigate the globe on the sailing vessel, INSC Tarini, is scheduled to have four stopovers. Which one of the following is not one of them?

(a)  Fremantle

(b)  Lyttelton

(c)  Port Stanley

(d)  Durban

 

37) Why was constitutional amendment needed for introducing GST ?

(a) States were not willing to agree with the Union for introduction of GST without amendment in the Constitution.

(b)  GST was to be implemented on concurrent base and Article 246 was inadequate for such a case.

(c)  The Empowered Committee of Finance ministers had recommended for constitutional amendment.

(d)  The GST Council had recommended for constitutional amendment so that its power enhances.

 

38) Where is the world’s first Partition Museum inaugurated recently ?

(a)  New Delhi

(b)  Lahore

(c)  Amritsar

(d)  Islamabad

 

39) The Setu Bharatam programme of the Government of India is a programme for

(a) building bridges across major rivers for transport of goods

(b)  buildings bridges for safe and seamless travel on national highways

(c)  building roads to connect coastal areas

(d)  training of highway engineers at the entry level and service level

 

40) Which one of the following statements about the Global Environment Facility Grant Agreement, signed by India in August 2017 with the World Bank for ‘Ecosystems Service Improvement Project’, is not correct ?

(a)  The size of the project is about USD 25 million.

(b)  The duration of the project is 15 years

(c)  The project will entirely be financed by the World Bank out of its GEF Trust Fund.

(d)  The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change will implement the project.

 

41) UBI, as an alternative for substance in poverty alleviation, stands for

(a)  Union Basic Income

(b)  Undefined Basic Income

(c)  Unconditional Basic Income

(d)  Universal Basic Income

 

42) Which one of the following authorities has recently launched the mobile apps ‘MyFASTag’ and FASTag Partner’ ?

(a) Telecom Regulatory Authority

(b)  National Highways Authority

(c)  Airports Economic Regulatory Authority

(d)  National Disaster Management Authority

 

43) ‘Pragati scholarship scheme of the Government of India is meant for

(a) higher education of girls

(b)  technical education of girls

(c)  secondary education of girls

(d)  elementary education of girls

 

44) Which one of the following is not a feature of the Saansad Adaesh Gram Yojana [SAGY] ?

(a)  It focuses on community participation

(b)  It is to be guided by a Member of the Parliament

(c)  It aims at creating infrastructure for the village.

(d)  A Village Development Plan would be prepared for every identified Gram Panchayat.

 

45) Which one of the following is not included in the National Air Quality Index ?

(a)  Sulphur

(b)  Nitrogen dioxide

(c)  Lead

(d)  Methane

 

46) Which twelfth century Sanskrit scholar was first responsible for the compilation of ‘Nibandhas’ or digests of epic and Puranic texts ?

(a)  Harsha

(b)  Govindachandra

(c)  Lakshmidhara

(d)  Kalidasa

Source:

47) Who among the following scholars argued that ‘capital created underdevelopment not because it exploited the underdeveloped world, but because it did not exploit it enough ?

(a)  Bill Warren

(b)  Paul Baran

(c)  Geoffrey Kay

(d)  Lenin

 

48) Which river is praised in the fifth century Tamil epic, Silappadikaram ?

(a)  Cauvery

(b)  Godavari

(c)  Saraswati

(d)  Ganges

 

49) Which one of the following statements about the Harappan Culture is not correct ?

(a)  It witnessed the first cities in the subcontinent.

(b)  It marks the first use of script, written from right to left.

(c)  it marks the earliest known use of iron as a medium for the art of sculpting.

(d) It matks the earliest known use of stone as a medium for the art of sculpting.

 

50) Harshacharita has references to various presents sent by a ruler named Bhaskara to Harshavardhana. Bhaskara belonged to

(a)  Haryanka Dynasty of magadha

(b) Varman Dynasty of Assam

(c)  Nanda Dynasty of North India

(d)  None of the above

 

51) Which of the following lakes is/are situated in Ladakh ?

  1. Tso Kar
  2. Pangong Tso
  3. Tsomgo
  4. Tso Moriri

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  1 only

(b)  2  and 3

(c)   1, 2  and 4

(d)   2 and 4 only

 

52) ‘Tuvalu’ has become a point of discussion recently. Why ?

(a)  potato plant that could grow in high altitude.

(b)  Place in equatorial Africa, where snow is found

(c)  New innovative technology to meet global warming

(d)  A country under threat of submergence due to ice melting and sea level rise.

 

53) Which of the following statements related to latitude are true ?

  1. Rainfall, temperature and vegetation vary with latitude.
  2. The difference between the longest day and the shortest day increases with latitude.
  3. Indira Point is located approximately at 6o45’N latitude.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  1 and 2 only

(b)  1 and 3 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

54) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I

[Lake]

  1. Bhimtal
  2. Ashtamudi
  3. Gohna
  4. Lonar

List – II

[Type of Lake]

  1. Lagoon
  2. Landslide
  3. Tectonic
  4. Crater

 

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        3          1          2          4

(b)       3          2          1          4

(c)        4          2          1          3

(d)       4          1          2          3

 

 

55) Which of the following statements is/are correct ?

  1. Himalayan rivers have their origin in the snow-covered areas, hence are dry in winter season.
  2. Rivers of the Peninsular Plateau have reached maturity.
  3. Himalayan rivers depict all the three stages of normal cycle of erosion.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  2 only

(b)  1 and 3 only

(c)  2 and 3 only

(d)  1, 2 and 3

 

56) match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

Lists – I

[States of NE India]

  1. Tripura
  2. Mizoram
  3. Nagaland
  4. Manipur

 

List – II

[Location in Map]

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        2          1          4          3

(b)       2          4          1          3

(c)        3          1          4          2

(d)       3          4          1          2

 

57) Which one of the following statements regarding Uniform Civil Code as provided under Article 44 of the Constitution of India is not correct ?

(a)  It is Fundamental Right of every Indian citizen.

(b)  The State shall endeavour to secure it for citizens throughout the territory of India.

(c)  It is not enforceable by any Court.

(d)  It is not enforceable by a Court yet the Constitution requires that as a principle it should be fundamental in the governance of our country.

 

58) Which of the following was/were founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy ?

  1. Atmiya Sabha
  2. Brahmo Samaj
  3. Prarthana Samaj
  4. Arya Samaj

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a)  1, 2 and 3

(b)  2 only

(c)  1 and 2 only

(d)  1, 3 and 4

 

59) Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists.

Lists – I

[Harappan Site]

  1. Dholavira
  2. Rakhigarhi
  3. Bhirrana
  4. Bhogavo

List – II

[Modern Name]

  1. Saurashtra
  2. Hisar
  3. Kadir island
  4. Haryana

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        1          4          2          3

(b)       1          2          4          3

(c)        3          2          4          1

(d)       3          4          2          1

60) Which one of the following statements about the Gupta period in Indian history is not correct?

(a)  Sanskrit language and literature, after centuries of evolution, reached what has been described as a level of classical excellence through royal patronage.

(b)  The status of women was redefined. They were entitled to formal education and hence there were women teachers, philosophers and doctors. Early marriage was prohibited by law and they were given the right to property.

(c)  Decentralization of administrative authority was impacted by increased grants of land and villages with fiscal and administrative immunities to priests and temples.

(d)  land grants paved the way for feudal developments and emergence of selfdom in India, resulting in the depression of the peasantry.

 

61) The Nobel Prize in Physics for the year 2016 was given to

(a)  David J. Thouless

(b)  F. Duncan M. Haldane

(c)  J. Michael Kosterlitz

(d)  All of them

 

62) Which one of the following political parties was launched by Irom Sharmila in Manipur ?

(a)  People’s Resurgence and Justice Alliance

(b)  Manipur Resistance Alliance

(c)  Tribal Resistance Party

(d)  Revolutionary People’s Party

 

63) Which one of the following planets was explored by Cassini Mission launched by NASA, which ended in September 2017 ?

(a)  Sun

(b)  Neptune

(c)  Saturn

(d)  Jupiter

 

64) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I

[Strait]

  1. Bass Strait
  2. Davis Strait
  3. Dover Strait
  4. Florida Strait

List – II

[Countries ]

  1. UK and France
  2. Australia and Tasmania
  3. USA and Cuba
  4. Canada and Greenland

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        2          4          1          3

(b)       2          1          4          3

(c)        3          4          1          2

(d)       3          1          4          2

 

65) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I

[ Pass]

  1. Zoji La
  2. Shipki La
  3. Lipulekh
  4. Nathu La

List – II

[Place]

  1. Himachal Pradesh
  2. Uttarakhand
  3. Jammu and Kashmir
  4. Sikkim

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        4          2          1          3

(b)       4          1          2          3

(c)        3          1          2          4

(d)       3          2          1          4

 

66) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I

[Concern]

  1. TISCO
  2. BALCO
  3. BPCL
  4. BEL

List – II

[Product]

  1. Chemicals
  2. Iron & steel
  3. Electronics
  4. Aluminium

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        2          1          4          3

(b)       2          4          1          3

(c)        3          4          1          2

(d)       3          1          4          2

 

67) Match List – I  with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List – I

[National Highway]

  1. NH – 2
  2. NH – 4
  3. NH – 7
  4. NH – 8

List – II

[Route]

  1. Delhi – Jaipur – Ahmedabad – Mumbai
  2. Thane – Pune – Bengaluru – Chennai
  3. Delhi – Agra – Allahabad – Kolkata
  4. Varanasi – jabalpur – Nagpur – Hyderabad – Bengaluru – Madurai – Kanyakumari

Code :

A         B         C         D

(a)        3          4          2          1

(b)       1          2          4          3

(c)        1          4          2          3

(d)       3          2          4          1

 

68) One carbon credit is accepted as equivalent to

(a)  100 kg of carbon

(b)  100 kg of carbon dioxide

(c)  1000 kg of carbon

(d)  1000 kg of carbon dioxide

 

69) An emulsion consists of

(a)  one liquid and one solid

(b)  one liquid and one gas

(c)  two liquids

(d)  two solids

 

70) Which one of the following radioactive substances enters/enter the human body through food chain and causes/cause many physiological disorders ?

(a) Strontium – 90

(b)  Iodine – 131

(c)  Cesium – 137

(d)  All of the above

 

71) ‘Xeriscaping’ is a concept related to

(a)  landscaping related to save water

(b) landscaping related to save soil erosion

(c)  weathering of rock surface

(d)  all of the above

72) Joule – Thomson process is extremely useful and economical for attaining low temperature. The process can be categorized as

(a)  isobaric process

(b)  isoenthalpic process

(c)  adiabatic process

(d)  isochoric process

 

73) Ultrasonic waves are produced by making use of

(a)  ferromagnetic material

(b)  ferrimagnetic material

(c)  piezoelectric material

(d)  pyroelectrical material

 

74) A person throws an object on a horizontal friction plane surface. It is noticed that there are two forces acting on this object – (i) gravitational pull and (ii) normal reaction of the surface. According to the third law of motion, the net resultant force is zero. Which one of the following can be said for the motion of the objects ?

(a)  The object will move with acceleration.

(b)  The object will move with deceleration.

(c)  The object will move with constant speed, but varying direction.

(d)  The object will move with constant velocity.

 

75) Consider the following statements :

  1. The chain reaction process is used in nuclear bombs to release a vast amount of energy, but in nuclear reactors, there is no chain reaction.
  2. In a nuclear reactor, the reaction is controlled, while in nuclear bombs, the reaction is uncontrolled.
  3. In a nuclear reactor, all operating reactors are ‘critical’, while there is no question of ‘critically’ in case of a nuclear bomb.
  4. Nuclear reactors do not use moderators, while nuclear bombs use them.

Which of the above statements about operational principles of a nuclear reactor and a nuclear bomb is/are correct ?

(a)  1 and 3

(b)  2 and 3

(c)  4 only

(d)  1 and 4

CDS 1 2017 Final Result 209 Candidates Got Recommended

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CDS 1 2017 FINAL RESULT 209 CANDIDATES GOT RECOMMENDED

The following are the lists, in order of merit of 209 (124+75+10) candidates who have qualified on the basis of the results of the Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2017 conducted by the Union Public Service Commission in February, 2017 and SSB interviews held by the Services Selection Board of the Ministry of Defence for admission to the 144th Course of Indian Military Academy, Dehradun; Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala and Air Force Academy, Hyderabad (Pre-Flying) Training Course i.e. No. 203 F (P) Course.

There are some common candidates in the three lists for various courses. The number of vacancies, as intimated by the Government is 150 for Indian Military Academy [including 19 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ certificates (Army Wing) holders], 45 for Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala, Kerala Executive(General Service) [including 06 vacancies reserved for NCC ‘C’ Certificate holders (Naval Wing)] and 32 for Air Force Academy, Hyderabad.

The Commission had recommended 3611,2154 and 650 as qualified in the written test for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy respectively. The number of candidates finally qualified are those after SSB test conducted by Army Head Quarters.cds exam book

The results of Medical examination have not been taken into account in preparing these lists.
Verification of date of birth and educational qualifications of these candidates is still under process by the Army Headquarters. The candidature of all these candidates is, therefore, Provisional on this score. Candidates are requested to forward their certificates, in original, in support of Date of Birth/Educational qualification etc. claimed by them, along with Photostat attested copies thereof to Army Headquarters /Naval Headquarters /Air Headquarters, as per their first choice.

In case, there is any change of address, the candidates are advised to promptly intimate directly to the Army Headquarters /Naval Headquarters /Air Headquarters. These results will also be available on the UPSC website at http://www.upsc.gov.in. However, marks of the candidates will be available on the website after completion of its complete process i.e. after declaration of final result of Officers’ Training Academy (OTA) for Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2017.

CDS 2018 Study Material

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/FR_CDS_I_2017_Engl_F.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks [Official]

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CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks [Expected]

UPSC conducted the Combined Defence Service exam twice every year CDS 2 2017 exam was of 2nd phase which was held on 19th Nov 2017, many eligible and interested candidates has appeared on that day and successfully given they exam. Now they all are waiting for CDS 2 2017 result and final cut off marks. If you also looking for the merit list of CDS exam, then you must check the information which is mentioned below.

Name of department Union Public Service Commission UPSC
Name of the exam CDS 2 2017
Details for UPSC CDS 2 Cut Off Marks 2017
Date of announcement 2017

CDS 2 Exam 2017 Cut Off Marks

As per the notice announced that the result of CDS 2 2017 will be declared in Jan/ Feb 2018 and it will be shown on an official website of UPSC. You can check it on the online, UPSC will not send any type of letter to invite that you are selected or not, so you can check the official website daily.

CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks

CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks [Written]

S.No Academy Cut Off
1 OTA (Women) 86
2 OTA (Men) 86
3 IMA 120
4 INA 111
5 IAF 135

 

CDS 2012 Cutoff

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 12 114 237
INA 12 108 231
AFA 12 144 266
OTA (Men) 12 76 158
OTA (Women) 12 76 159

CDS 2013 Cutoff

    Written ExamResult Final Result
Academy Qualifying Marks in Each Subject Aggregate Marks of Last Qualified Candidate Marks of Last Recommended Candidate
IMA 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 111 marks( i.e 37%) 231
INA 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 111 marks( i.e 37%) 231
AFA 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 135 marks (i.e. 45%) 266
OTA (Men) 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 76 marks (i.e. 38%) 158
OTA (Women) 20 marks (i.e. 20%) 76 marks (i.e. 38%) 160

CDS 2014 Cutoff (Expected)

CDS 2014 Cutoff mentioned here is expected as the final result for the CDS II 2014 Examination is not announced as yet on the UPSC website-

Academy Written Exam Result Final Result
IMA 102 225
INA 75 206
AFA 129 256
OTA (Men) 72 154
OTA (Women) 72 152

Stay in touch with this space for more information regarding the CDS 2 2016 Cutoff Marks.

We request our warriors to email us their scanned question papers to [email protected]

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CDS 2 2017 Answer Keys | CDS 2 Answer Keys 2017 [All Sets] -Updated

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cds 2 2017 answer keys

Check: CDS 1 2018 Answer Keys. Written exam of CDS-2-2017 was conducted by UPSC on 19th Nov 2017. Candidates who gave written CDSE 2 2017 must be waiting for CDS 2 2017 answer keys and cut off marks. Through CDS 2 2017 candidates will join the course commencing in Jan 2019 for admission to the Army, Air Force wings and  Navy. Courses like IMA 145 Course, SSC 108th, 20th OTA, 204th Flying Course and Naval Academy. Candidates looking for CDS 2 2017 Key and cut off marks, Paper solution sheet, CDS key 2017,  CDS 2 2017 Cut Off Marks / answer sheet of CDS-2 2017 can check it on SSBCrack. Aspirants can look at the answer keys for their CDS written exam, here of paper-1st and paper-2nd with set-a, set-b, set-c, set-d. 


CDSE 2 2017 includes three different papers i.e English, Maths and General Knowledge for IMA, AFA and NA. For OTA candidates, there were only two papers i.e. English and General Knowledge. CDSE is conducted by UPSC twice every year. When comparing CDS 2 2017 from last exam, it was same. 

Note: CDS 2 2017 answer keys are updated now- Apologies if there is an error in the answer keys, requesting you to cross when in doubt.

Baalnoi Academy CDS-2 2017 Examination Answer Key – UPDATED

  English General Knowledge Mathematics
SET-A Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-B Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-C Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-D Click Here Click Here Click Here

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Best Book To Crack SSB

 

CDS 2 2017 Question Paper Solved – UPDATED

CDS 2 2017 SET D Answer Keys – English

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Answer-Keys-ENGLISH-SET-D.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Answer Keys – GK

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Answer-Keys-GENERAL-KNOWLEDGE-SET-D.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Answer Keys – Maths

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Answer-Keys-MATHS-SET-D.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper English

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Question-Paper-English-PDF.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper GK

[pdfviewer]https://www.ssbcrack.com/wp-content/uploads/2017/11/CDS-2-2017-Question-Paper-GK-PDF.pdf[/pdfviewer]

CDS 2 2017 SET D Question Paper Maths – Updating

 

 


 

  • CDS 2 2017 Answer Key [ by Baalnoi]
  • CDS 2 2017 Answer Keys All Sets [ Cavalier]
  • CDS 1 2017 Answer Keys All Sets [ Kalshi]

Download:

CDS-I 2017 Examination
Answer Key

  English General Knowledge Mathematics
SET-A Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-B Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-C Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-D Click Here Click Here Click Here

CDS 1 2017 Cutoff Marks CDS 2 Answer Key 2017 Paper 1st, 2nd and 3rd Solution

English: 

GK: 

Maths: 

Overall the paper was good enough for the candidates who have done preparation beforehand. UPSC may declare the results of CDSE 1 2017 in May – June 2017. CDSE 1 2017 cut off may go up to 120 Marks for AFA, 110 marks for IMA,  90 for OTA and 100 for NA. Keep an eye on this page for the CDS 1 2017 answers key to come up from The Cavalier Coaching Institute, Baalnoi, NCA and Khalsi Classes for  CDS-1 answer sheet 2017 and CDS 1 2017 cut off.

CDS 1 2017 Answer Keys All Sets [ Cavalier]

  • CDS 1 2017 Maths Answer Keys – Updating
  • CDS 1 2017 English Answer Keys – Updating
  • CDS 1 2017 GK Answer Keys  –

CDS 1 2017 Answer Keys All Sets [ Kalshi]

  English General Knowledge Mathematics
SET-A Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-B Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-C Click Here Click Here Click Here
SET-D Click Here Click Here Click Here

 

So how was your CDSE 1 2017 written experience? Aspirants, post your review and expected marks in the comment section below. Also, few good warriors are requested to send their scanned questions papers at [email protected]

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140 Latest Original Lecturette Topics Asked In SSB Interview 2023

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These topics are collected and compiled by SSBCrack’s team. candidates who are going to attend the SSB interview soon can refer to the original Lecturette topics collected from candidates who have been to SSB recently. Lecturette topic is mentioned along with the name of the SSB centre where it was faced by the candidates.

Lecturette is one of the tests conducted during SSB interview to judge the personality of the candidates. We can say Lecturette is a small speech or a small talk given by the candidate, Lecturette is conducted by GTO during group task.

Lecturette Topics eBook SSBCrack

Latest Lecturette Topics Asked In SSB Interview collected by SSBCrack

  1. Juvenile crime – 33 SSB
  2. Land requisition bill, e commerce, Aadhar Card, Indo China relations in – 21SSB BHOPAL
  3. Modernisation
  4. AFSPA – 22 SSB
  5. Falling value of Indian rupee in context to dollar – 21ssb
  6. FDI in defence , Brahmos, India-Srilanka ties – 21ssb
  7. Yoga – 24 SSB Bangalore
  8. Population – Merits and demerits – Gandhinagar AFSB
  9. Reservations system – 31SSB Kapurthala
  10. CPEC, Sex Education , Honor Killing in – 4 AFSB Varanasi
  11. Sponsorship in sports
  12. Mobile phones – 22 SSB Bhopal
  13. WTO, Social Network, Tax Reform and My Best Friend
  14. Indian Democracy – Is it a force or flawed – 33 SSB Bhopal
  15. Indo-China relationships, ISRO vs NASA – 33 SSB
  16. Internal situation of Pakistan – 18 SSB ALLAHABAD
  17. Indian Economy
  18. Training in Armed Forces – 22 SSB Bhopal
  19. Dowry system, Role of NGO, Senior citizens – 1 AFSB
  20. Indigenization, Capital Punishment, Child Labour, Gambling – 2AFSB Mysore
  21. Child labour – 4 AFSB Varanasi
  22. Women Empowerment in 4 AFSB Varanasi
  23. Sign language
  24. Indo-China , ISRO – 33 SSB
  25. Defense budget
  26. Higher education in India – AFSB 1 Dehradun
  27. Medical Science – 4 AFSB
  28. 3G Mobile Communication – 12 SSB Bangalore
  29. Reforms in UN security council – 1 AFSB Dehradun
  30. India : a global R &D destination
  31. NDRF, RELIGIOUS FUNDAMENTALISM, FAV ACTOR, STING OPERATION – 17 SSB
  32. Police Duties
  33. National Integration, Television, Mercy Killing – 34 SSB Allahabad
  34. Justice delayed is justice denied – NSB Bhopal
  35. Influence of western culture
  36. New technologies in India, Nuclear power
  37. Chinese goods impact on India
  38. ISIS- SSB KAPURTHALA
  39. Role of India in united nation
  40. Nasalism, Digital Sector, Instagram, Indo Myanmar relations – Kapurthala
  41. Election commission AFSB Mysore
  42. Global Warming – 18 SSB Allahabad
  43. Make in India
  44. Sex Education, MNC, Organ Donation – 11SSB Allahabad
  45. Division of states – 2 AFSB
  46. Is consumer still a king? – 12 SSB
  47. Love marriage or arrange marriage 22 SSB Bhopal
  48. Power and Politics – NSB Coimbatore
  49. Reservation system, Western education vs traditional education- 33 SSB
  50. India’s role in world forum- 22 SSB
  51. Evolution in telecommunication – 32 SSB Kapurthala
  52. Child labor , fundamental rights
  53. Industrialization, Jallilkattu – 21 SSB Bhopal
  54. Organic farming -38 Bangalore
  55. Cybercrime 22 SSB Bhopal
  56. How to improve sports in India – NSB Vishakhapatnam
  57. Paid media – 19 SSB
  58. Uses of technology in agriculture sector – 21SSB Bhopal
  59. Student Union – 19SSB
  60. ISRO – 33 SSB
  61. Terrorism and infiltration.
  62. Swatch Bharat Abhiyaan – SSB Allahabad.
  63. Cosmetic-a new rage, Privacy, Genetically modified food, Fav Sportsperson – 4 AFSB
  64. Electronic devices
  65. Internal problems between Indo Pak – 24 SSB Bangalore
  66. Tourism in India – AFSB MYSURU
  67. Development of rural areas in India – NSB Coimbatore
  68. RTE – 19 SSB Allahabad
  69. Secularism, Nuclear Proliferation, Subsidies – AFSB Mysore
  70. Indian Foreign Policy – 33 SSB Bhopal
  71. Internet- curse or boon – 4 AFSB Varanasi.
  72. Poverty Eradication – 33 SSB Bhopal
  73. Cross border terrorism, Strategic importance of Indian Ocean.
  74. Coastal security – 33 SSB Bhopal
  75. Cyber Security, Brain drain, Family planning, Internet necessary evil, China secret threats against India
  76. Cyber bullying
  77. Organ trafficking – 12 SSB Bangalore.
  78. India’s stand on terrorism 21 Bhopal
  79. Higher education in India – 20 SSB Bhopal
  80. West Asia Crisis – 34 SSB Allahabad
  81. South China Sea Dispute – 19 SSB Allahabad
  82. Biotechnology – 21 SSB
  83. OPPOSITES ATTRACT – 19 SSB Allahabad
  84. Brahmos/Montreal protocol/COP21/my greatest achievement.
  85. India’s foreign relation, DRDO, Junk food, Constitutional reforms – 188 SSB Allahabad
  86. World Trade Organization, United Nations role in global Development – NSB
  87. Operating System 14 SSB
  88. Optical fiber, Women cricket world cup , Juvenile crime, Modern automobile – 2 AFSB Mysore
  89. Dynastic Politics – 1 AFSB
  90. Cybercrime, Sports in India, Social media
  91. Swatch Bharat – SSB Allahabad
  92. India – A Giant Country Awaken – 17 SSB
  93. Coalition politics, Extra-terrestrial life, Meeting energy crisis in India – 33 SSB Bhopal
  94. Metro railway – 18 SSB Allahabad
  95. Impact of Globalisation on Indian economy- SSB Allahabad
  96. Superiority of RUSSIA AND USA in world and the rising competition
  97. Dynamic politics – 19 SSB Allahabad
  98. Election system in India – 14 SSB Bangalore
  99. Should India break its diplomatic ties with Pakistan – NSB Vizag
  100. Fav cricketer – SSB Bangalore
  101. Cause of poverty in India – AFSB Varanasi
  102. US-CHN relations – INS AGRANI Coimbatore
  103. Women in combat role – 17 SSB Bangalore
  104. Criminalsation in politics – 20 SSB Bhopal
  105. Tourism in India
  106. Impact of cinema on youth – AFSB Dehradun
  107. Distance Education – 21 SSB
  108. Global Warming – 19 SSB
  109. Why china is biggest threat to India – 18 SSB
  110. Doping in sports (TGC-126)
  111. Ills of democracy – SSB BANGALORE
  112. Rural development and ethical hacking – 22 SSB Bhopal
  113. Unemployment
  114. How to increase GDP Rate
  115. Agriculture in India.
  116. Women as Fighter Pilots in Indain Air Force – 2 AFSB.
  117. Indo China relation – 22 SSB Bhopal
  118. Women in present society – SSB Bhopal
  119. Sports in India – AFSB Mysore
  120. Indo-Russian relationship – 19 SSB
  121. Effects of social media – 14 Allahabad
  122. Boarding School – 18 SSB Allahabad
  123. IT industry – 14 SSB Allahabad
  124. Kashmir – 34 SSB Allahabad
  125. Bigger states vs Smaller states 17 – SSB Bangalore
  126. Importance of E-Commerce – 4 AFSB VARANASI
  127. Corruption in politics
  128. Present situation of Indian judiciary system
  129. Do religious institution promote religious discrimination!?
  130. Hardwork or intelligence
  131. Dynastic politics
  132. Alquaida 18 SSB Bangalore
  133. Importance of international organisations
  134. China becoming an economic super power
  135. Daily Soaps – 18 SSB Bangalore
  136. Illiteracy – 22 SSB Bhopal
  137. Disposal of nuclear waste – 33 SSB Bhopal
  138. Contribution of Gandhi -18 SSB ALLAHABAD
  139. Nuclear energy- 21 SSB Bhopal
  140. Medical transcription- 17 SSB Bangalore
  141. Make in India – 19 SSB Allahabad

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