Many candidates who have applied successfully for AFCAT 2 2018 online are waiting for the admit card. Candidates are required to download the admit card from afcat cdac website as and when it is available. As per the official website, the AFCAT 2 2018 admit cards will be available for download from 2nd August 2018 10:00 AM onward. Below we have mentioned the steps to download AFCAT 2 2018 admit card and other requirements.
Offical Statement:Admit Card for AFCAT 02/2018 is available for download through Candidate Login from 2nd August 2018 10:00 AM onward. Please verify the contents, read the instructions which are to be strictly adhered to, and carry a printout copy of the Admit Card along with other mandatory documents to the allotted exam center as per the scheduled date and time, as given in the Admit Card
The eligible candidates shall be issued with an e-Admit Card three weeks before the date of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be sent to the registered email IDs and will be also available at the website www.careerindianairforce.cdac.in of all candidates who successfully submitted their online application. No Admit Card will be sent by post. To download the e-Admit Card, a candidate should have his/her username and password. The candidate will be solely responsible for downloading his/ her e-Admit Card.
No candidate will be allowed to appear in the examination unless he/ she holds a downloaded e-Admit Card for the examination. If there is any error/ discrepancy in the e-admit card, please bring it to the notice of AFCAT-C-DAC Query Cell immediately (Telephone No. 020-25503105/ 06. E-Mail queries may be addressed to [email protected]).
The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their eligibility as per age and educational qualifications and the course preferences given by them. The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional, based on the information given by them in the Application Form. On verification, in case the IAF finds that the information disclosed by the candidate is not correct or genuine, the candidature will be treated as canceled.
Candidates are to ensure that the personal information on the front side of the e-Admit card is as per the details provided by them during the registration process. They are also advised to read the instructions given at the rear of the e-Admit card beforehand.
AFCAT 2 2017 hall tickets/admit cards have been released and are available for download. The exam is scheduled on 27th August 2017 in two shifts, i.e. morning and evening shifts. The candidates who are approaching their aim of joining the Indian Air Force through this exam should accelerate their preparation and target their ambition. The candidates can download their examination admit cards by following the steps mentioned below.
Click on candidates login and enter your details in respective fields.
Now click on generate AFCAT 2 2017 Admit Card/ Hall Ticket.
Save it and take 2 print out of it.
AFCAT Exam 2017 Details:
AFCAT 2 2017 Exam Date: 27th August 2017
AFCAT 2 Admit Card 2017 Released Date: End of July 2017
AFCAT 2 Result Announce Date: 1st Week of Oct 2017
The admit card is to be produced during the examination and the candidates are instructed to check the credentials properly before heading to the examination hall.
Current Affairs questions will be from last 5-7 months (for AFCAT, NDA, CDS, TA)
The Candidates Must Stick To These Important Instructed.
The admit card is to be produced at the examination center as well as the AFSB, while appearing for the SSB.
The admit card must have a recent self-attested photograph pasted over it. Remember not to put your signatures on the face part of the photograph.
Bring any of your ID proof in the examination hall that declare your identity. ID of College, Passport, Driving License, Aadhaar Card, Pan Card, Voters ID Card will be accepted at the examination venue.
The admit card must be signed by SIO/ IO at the examination venue. Candidates have to present a signed copy of admit card at the SSB centers.
The candidates must report only at the venue and time mentioned in the admit card. Any request for change of venue or examination batch will not be entertained.
The candidates must bring blue/ black ball point pen with them. Use of Calculators, Log Tables, PDA and Mobile Phones is strictly prohibited.
Admit cards are just permission letters for appearing in the AFCAT examination. They are not the final selection letters.
The candidates have to appear at the examination center by their own medium of conveyance. Not TA/DA or any kind of allowance will be paid to for it.
The Territorial Army exam is scheduled on 30th July and has reached closer. Aspirants of various ages are going to attend the exam. The last minute preparations are always necessary for performing well in the exam. But the sources to prepare for the exam in short span of time are limited, which should be precise and must cover maximum material in minimum time. The exam consists of 4 sections embedded in 2 papers. The exams cover English, G.K., Mathematics and Reasoning parts with a difficulty level equivalent to the AFCAT exam. The last minute preparation can be done using the following sources to ease your preparation.
Newspaper – Newspaper is a multipurpose material for the aspirants for any exam. Start reading the newspaper for the days left for the exam. The newspaper gives the idea of the English language for the exam as well as will help you in getting the estimate of English that you are going to face in the exam.
One liner – One liner of history, geography, economics, science etc. will help you in getting the knowledge of the basics of the subjects. Either follow notes or go through the summary of these sections to improve the General ability performance. Opt the book which suits you as per you lingual comfort and knowledge requirement.
Antonyms and Synonyms – Antonyms and Synonyms are the scoring part of English. It is not possible to cover most of the antonyms and synonyms in this short span. But try as much as you can.
Formulas and Tricks – For excelling in mathematics, going through the formulas of basics mathematics will help in scoring well in mathematics. The tricks, shortcuts and fast calculations will help the aspirants in performing well in mathematics. Formulas and short tricks help in scoring more in less time.
Magazines – The current affairs play significant role in the exam. So the candidates must go through the current affairs magazines of last 4-5 months. The magazines will raise the current affairs as well as the sample papers, and exam papers in the monthly current affairs will help you in practicing for the exam.
Sample Papers and Practice Papers – The sample papers and previous year papers are the final sources to check your performance. Practice from them, get the time management and make your strategy for the exam. The most important thing to do here is to check the type of questions you would face in the exam and the way you should handle them.
Current Affairs questions will be from last 5-7 months (for AFCAT, NDA, CDS, TA)
Conclusion – Like all other exams, the strategy for the exam matters to score in the exam. The preparation at the final moment has to be revised in order to put the strong impact of your preparation. But the above sources will help you in making the preparation more effective and perform well in the exam. Following the sectional and the overall cut-off of the exam, the aspirants need to prepare more and opt the scoring section from all 4 sections and work hard to get over the sectional cut-off of all.
Hello, I am Akash Kale from Mumbai. I would like to share my SSB experience with you. I am pursuing my graduation in Social Work from TISS, Tuljapur, Maharashtra. While I was in campus I was unaware of the procedure of joining defence. So it was like very blur dream for me and I was not focused on it. But one of my friends, Deepmala, suggested me to appear for CDS exam and also helped me in preparing for it. I somehow cracked the written part, but then the most important part was yet to come. I was totally blank about exactly what SSB is. I researched on this but ended up with the same results all around. I was confused like what they are actually looking for and still I am. Then I started following SSBCrack website and from there I got the reference of Dr. Cdr. Natarjan Sir’s Video Course. I ordered it and watched it. It gave me a clear idea about the SSB and what I am going to face in coming days. It also prepared me for the same.
Screening Test
I was nervous like others. Some candidates seemed very confident; looking at them makes us more nervous. So just focus on yourselves and don’t panic. Result was announced immediately after break and I was in, 20 were screened in. I was very happy thinking atleast I am going to stay for the next 5 days. But coming 5 days were more interesting than I thought.
Psych test:
I have heard that doing enough SRT, WAT and SDT will increase your chance of selection but while in test the time flies. In end I ended up doing only 28 SRT and 40 WAT, taking stress of this i screwed up my SDT also. That night was very difficult for me as I lost all hopes and was not able to focus on coming tasks.
I made a lot of friends and we supported each other throughout our stay.
IO:
Our tester JCO told that my interview is for the next day, so I planned to go out with my friends and I went to nearby mall. After sometime one of my friend called me and told that I have my interview today itself, IO had informed JCO to call me. Again a deep shock you get when you hear that someone very important is waiting for you and you have not prepared your mind to face them.
I immediately ran and changed to formals. My interview went for 25 good minutes and was average. I was a bit nervous in few questions because the AC was too high and I was feeling cold.
GTO
For me GTO was very fun task. I gave many ideas in PGT, HGT, and GPE and also contributed well in GD as a social science student. I was well aware of the topics which GTO asked us to discuss. I also did well in Individual Obstacles, I did 17 obstacles.
Conference
The tensest day of my life. I used to read stories about this moment. This is the point where your dreams either come to reality or remain dream.
My Chest No was 07; they asked me few questions and let me go.
It was the time ‘THE RESULTS’
I closed my eyes. When the officers started calling numbers. I suddenly heard 07 at that time. You don’t hear anything after they call your number. You just get lost in your dreams. I was just thinking, is it real. I cleared my medicals from there. But it was not impossible. So if i can do it, you can also do.
Prepare your mind, don’t lose hope till end and you will be there.
Jai Hind!
TO CRACK THE SSB INTERVIEW, GET THE 16 HOURS POWER PACKED VIDEO LECTURES ON SSB BY DR. CDR. NK NATARAJAN
Many candidates who have cleared the NDA 1 2017 written exam and waiting for their SSB interview call letter for NDA 139th course and Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) 101st course can check the details on how they should proceed and what will follow after their NDA results. First of all congratulations to the successful candidates for clearing one of the most famous yet toughest written exams in Indian defence. Yes, the level of NDA exam is bigger than CDS, AFCAT and TA. If you haven’t checked your NDA 1 2017 result you can do so clicking the link.
What to do after NDA 1 2017 Result
Feel good and confident about yourself for clearing an exam like NDA. Do not waste time and start preparing for your SSB interview by looking for a coaching academy and just start by buying an SSB interview book to get the understanding of complete SSB interview. You can read tips and stories on SSBCrack, you can reach recommended candidates, you can join our Instagram for day to day SSB interview practice and motivation.
Keep yourself with good company, keep your thinking positive and make every day productive. Try to learn about 15 OLQs and inculcate them in your life, even if you don’t have them, you can fake them and act like you have them, you fake it till it becomes your habit.
You can not clear SSB interview by luck or without preparation, if someone has told you that you can crack SSB interview without preparation, they are fooling you or they might be from those lucky 0.001% candidates who do that.
Do you need to register for NDA 1 2017 SSB interview?
The result by UPSC says you need to register on joinindianarmy but joinindianarmy says you don’t need to register.
Notice from Joinindianarmy.nic.in
UPSC NDA result
As the official career website of Indian army website says you don’t need to register for NDA 1 2017 SSB, there is no need to register, but we would suggest keep checking the official website for any update. Many candidates are asking how much time will it take for NDA SSB date, it will take around 30 days and the picture will be clear, so better spend this time in preparation.
Candidate will get an email/SMS for their NDA 1 2017 SSB interview and also the centre allotment list and date will be mentioned on the respective websites of Indian army, navy, and air force. We will also keep the latest update on this and also suggest aspirants to keep checking the official website.
This is your ultimate goal. All the best.
Our honest suggestion for candidates who have cleared the NDA written exam is not to waste time thinking about SSB interview date, you will get the dates for sure, do not worry about it, just think about your preparation, if you start from today you will be ahead of others. And remember preparation matters in SSB interview.
The GTO task (Group task) or technique consists of a number of different leaderless group situations (except Command Task), in which candidates have the freedom to choose their own behavioural and social roles, priorities for action and engage themselves in collective group activities. To check the performance of candidates in real environment is a difficult issue, and is practically infeasible and unviable. Group tasks are designed in such a manner that they assess the practical profile of the candidates and how well they perform in groups under pressure.
Therefore for successful completion of a task, the group must stay in cohesion and show a sense of responsibility, teamwork and cooperation. Qualities like physical and mental toughness, determination and courage, team spirit, attitude towards the group, adaptability of the situation, ability to initiate, and interest and enthusiasm in the task of the candidates are inspected by the GTO. Some groups exhibit effective teamwork and some remain dysfunctional. Effective teamwork is both radically simple and difficult at the same time.
We are suggesting you few tips that recount the conditions that must occur within the group for successful teamwork to take place. Successful teamwork is the foundation for the effective functioning of a group.
The group needs to understand the goals and should be committed to attaining them. This clear direction and transparent agreement on the purpose and objective is essential for productive teamwork. Group members must agree upon an overall mission and work to achieve it. This group clarity is reinforced when the GTO (Group Testing Officer) has clear expectations for the group’s work, accountability, and outcomes.
The group must create an environment in which members are comfortable taking reasonable risks in communicating with each other, advocating positions, and taking actions in the common cause. All members must trust each other and not punish or blame or act dominantly for disagreeing.
Communication must be open, honest, and respectful. Teammates should feel free to express their thoughts, opinions, and potential solutions to the problems anticipated in the tasks. All members must be heard out and listened to by other team mates. They must ask questions for clarity and spend their thought time listening deeply rather than forming rebuttals while their co-mate is speaking.
Team members must have a strong sense of belonging to the group. They must experience a deep commitment to the group’s decisions and actions. This sense of belonging is enhanced and strengthened when the group spends time to develop goal specific norms and guidelines together.
View group members as unique people with invaluable and unparalleled experiences, point of view, knowledge, and opinions to contribute. Above all, the purpose of forming a group is to take advantage of the differences. So, take inputs from all, the more divergent opinions and suggestions you receive as a group, the wider range of options you have to implement them to tackle the tasks.
Expect and accept Creativity, innovation, and different viewpoints and encourage as much as possible. Comments such as “what a dumb idea” must not be allowed or supported by the group.
Constant examination of the group itself. Scrutinize the activities, practices and actions taken in the team and the interaction of the group members. Discuss openly what is hindering the group’s ability to move forward and progress in areas of efforts, planning, and strategy.
The group must agree upon the undertaking of diagnosing, analysing and resolving group problems and conflicts. As a team, you must not support member personality conflicts and clashes nor do pick sides in a disagreement. Rather, work towards the mutual resolution of problems and disagreements.
Practice Participative leadership. A good leader leads by example. Hence, come forward and do the work instead of ordering something. Come in front and make the bridge, but do not fight for it with anybody, say politely that you have got an idea and would like to implement it. Assign tasks, record mutual decisions, assess progress, hold group members accountable, and provide direction to the group.
Make high-quality decisions together as a team and have the support and commitment of the group to carry out the mutual decisions made.
Never lose temper or shout at others, but be patient and cheerful and show a friendly and cordial approach in the group.
Do not waste time in indecisiveness. Be active and do everything possible in coordination and cooperation with your teammates.
Use every member of the group wisely according to their weight and height. Do not impose an idea or suggestion on any member if he/she is incapable or hesitant to do it.
If a group can get these ten factors right, it can successfully end a task with satisfaction and contentment. It is not always the task or obstacle at hand that challenges the groups in their progress, it’s the relationships and the little things that happen at those moments.
The India China Standoff in disputed tri-junction between India China and Bhutan is a fresh topic of current affairs. All SSB aspirants must know the overview of the issue as it can be a part of the interview or can be used to strengthen your point in group discussion or lecturatte.
Stand off – The standoff between the armies of India and China was one of the fresh points of concern between both the nations. The videos of army personals of both the armies were released showing a standoff in Doklam. Bhutan, which doesn’t have any diplomatic ties with China is requesting India to provide the support of the border issue.
Where? – Doklam is a tri-junction between India, China, and Bhutan, where the road construction activities of China were strongly deterred by the Indian armed forces. As per the mutual understanding of India and Bhutan, both the nations consider this area as a Bhutanese territory. But China claims that the tri junction between the three nations should be on the south side of the plateaus.
Why? As per the Chinese authorities, the actual tri junction is located at Mount Gipmochi, which is far south from the actual tri junction marked by India and Bhutan. It is also considered as one of the 4 points of contention between China and Bhutan. The construction of the road in that area will increase the security threat in the disputed area.
What ahead – The final conclusion of the issue is expected to bring the leaders of both the nation. In response to the issue, India has suspended the annual Kailash Mansarovar yatra. The step to reopen Nathula in 2015 was a positive gesture from both the nations and the Nathula route of the yatra takes 2 days less than the normal old route from Lipulekh in Uttarakhand. The on-ground flag meets and the diplomatic phase of talks will resolve the issues effectively.
Why Bhutan want India to interfere?
Bhutan doesn’t have any diplomatic relation with China and has been facing the bully China from a long time. There are already 7 places in Bhutan where disputes between China and Bhutan is going on. Out of them, the prominent are Jakarlung, Pasamlung, Doklam plateau. China has been eyeing the Doklam part as it is the junction for targeting India.
China is interfering in the national border areas of India from a long time and luring the close neighbours of India. Along with this, Nepal has given the contract to a Chinese from for construction of largest hydroelectric power plant which will reduce the electricity shortage. Nepal is also expected to the internet through optical fibers from the China reducing India’s monopoly. The constant involvement of China with Himalayan nation Nepal has been seen as a strategic movement of spreading its tentacle of one belt one road and countering India’s monopoly in Nepal. China is also moving swiftly to complete CPEC in Pakistan.
CPEC– China Pakistan economic corridor is the initiative of China. The initiative is to connect the Kashgar of the China to the Gwadar of the Pakistan. The aim behind is to modernize and enhance the infrastructure and economic facilities of Pakistan. Originally marked with $46 billion, the project has used more than $64 billion. The project will develop rail and road networks, energy productions special economic zones and mass transit.
Conclusion – The international forums and the consistent efforts of nations have solved several issues in a calm way. Induction of India in SCO and domination in many other crucial initiatives like SARRC satellite, space cooperation pacts etc. have taken India to a more stable and strong position. The issue of Doklam could be checked by interference of top military officials and diplomats. Earlier China has intruded in Dolat Beg Odi sector and later left its position. Same stepping back is expected in this issue.
The defence examinations of AFCAT, NDA, and CDS are coming soon in upcoming consecutive months. These all have general ability section that checks the general knowledge of the candidates. The section contains questions from all basic theoretical subjects like history, civic, geography, physics, bio etc. Geography is also a part of it. The subject geography is quite interesting and enjoyable.
The questions related to this subjects are mostly asked directly. Below are some of the questions that will help the aspirants in getting the idea of it. Highest biodiversity is seen in – tropical rain forest
100 Geography GK Questions for CDS NDA AFCAT
Q1. Which of the following amidst the following planets has its
orbit closest to Sun –
(a) Mars
(b) Venus
(c) Jupiter
(d) Uranus
Ans: (b) Venus.Venus is the brightest planet in our sky & can sometimes be
seen with the naked eye if we know where to look. It is the solar system’s
brightest planet — yellow clouds of sulfuric acid reflect the sun’s light
brightly & has its orbit closest to sun but only next to mercury.
Q2. In Which among the given states the 1st Synagogue is built
in India –
(a) West Bengal
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Ans: (d). The oldest of India’s synagogue buildings can be found in the state
of Kerala, where synagogue construction began during the medieval period.
Whereas Kerala’s 1st Jewish houses of prayer said to be from the eleventh
through the 13th centuries perished long ago as a consequence of natural
disasters, enemy attacks, or the abandonment of buildings when
congregations shifted, as did the earliest confirmed synagogue in Kochandagi
authenticated to 1344 by a surviving building inscription now found in the
courtyard of the Paradesi synagogue in Kochi’s Jew Town, those originating
from the 16th & 17th centuries subsist. These extant synagogues, though
altered over time, include not only the oldest found on the Indian
subcontinent but in the British Commonwealth.
Q3. Which among the given is called the twin of the earth –
(a) Venus
(b) Neptune
(c) Mars
(d) Saturn
Ans: (a) Venus.Venus is the 2nd planet from the sun & a close neighbor to
the earth. Venus is usually one the brightest objects in the sky, which might
be the reason it got its name. It was named after the Roman Goddess of
Beauty. It is quite similar to the planet earth mainly in its size & a few other
characteristics which is why it is often considered the Earth’s twin. However,
surface conditions are not nearly the same making it a quite inhospitable
environment.
Q4. In India, As per the 2001 Census, the female literacy rate is
(a) 54.16
(b) 39.29
(c) 21.97
(d) 29.76
Ans: (a) 54..16 26%, which showed an increase of 11. From comparison to
the 1991 census, the male literacy rate increased to 75.13%.On the other
hand, the female literacy of 53.67% increased at a much faster rate of
14.38%. According to 2011 csnsus, female literacy rate of India is 64.6%.
Q5. The asteroids revolve round the Sun in between:
(a) Mars & Jupiter
(b) Earth & Mars
(c) Jupiter & Saturn
(d) Saturn & Uranus
Ans: (a) Mars & Jupiter.Asteroids, sometimes called minor planets, are small,
rocky fragments left over from the formation of our solar system about 4.
Most of this ancient space rubble can be found orbiting the sun between Mars
& Jupiter.6 billion yrs ago. Asteroids range in size from Ceres, about 952 km
(592 miles) in diameter, to bodies that are less than 1 km across. The total
mass of all the asteroids is less than that of Earth’s Moon.
Q6. In India, as per their 2001 Census, the sex-ratio (females
per 1000 males) is
(a) 934
(b) 930
(c) 927
(d) 933
Ans: (d). As per the Census findings overall Sex ratio in India has declined
over a period of time. It was 946 female per 1000 male in the yr 1951 &
declined to 927 in 1991. In the Census findings (2001), the overall sex ratio
improved by 6 points to 933 females per 1000 males. Highest sex ratio as per
census 2001 was recorded in the state of Kerala with 1058 females per 1000
males. It was lowest in the Daman & Diu with 709 females per 1000 males.
In India, as per their 2011 census, the sex-ratio (females per 1000 males) is
943.
Q7. On Which among the given planets water cycle is available
– (
a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Venus
Ans: (a) Earth.The water cycle, also known as the hydrological cycle or H2O
cycle, describes the continuous movement of water on, above & below the
surface of the Earth. The water moves from one reservoir to another, such as
from river to ocean, or from the ocean to the atmosphere, by the physical
processes of evaporation, condensation, precipitation, infiltration, runoff, &
subsurface flow. Although the balance of water on Earth remains fairly
constant over time, individual water molecules can come & go, in & out of
the atmosphere. In so doing, the water goes through different phases: liquid,
solid (ice), & gas (vapor).
Q8. As per 2001 Census, what is the percentage of India’s
population to the world population –
(a) 16
(b) 8
(c) 26
(d) 28
Ans: (a) 16.As per the provisional results compiled quickly for the Census of
India 2001, the population of India at 0:00 hours of 1st March, 2001, stood at
1,027,015,247 comprising of 531,277,078 males & 495,738,169 females.
India’s population comprised about 16 per cent of the global total. Thus, as
widely believed & expected, India became only the 2nd country in the world
after China to officially cross the one billion mark. According to 2011
census, India’s population consists of 17.5% of the world population.
Q9. In a cut motion, when the amount of demand is reduced by
Rs. 100 it is known as
(a) Economy cut
(b) Disapproval of policy cut
(c) Vote on Account
(d) Token cut
Ans: (d).06. When a cut motion is moved to reduce the amount of a demand
by Rs. 100, it is known as ‘Token Cut’. It aims to ventilate a specific
grievance which is within the sphere of the responsibility of the Government
of India. Token cut is symbolic & is humiliating for the Government. 1.
Q10. One of the pairs not matched correctly is
(a) Shimla–Himachal Pradesh
(b) Dehradun – U.P.
(c) Drajeeling – West Bengal
(d) Panchmarhi – M.P.
Ans: (b) Dehradun – U..P. Dehradun is the capital city of the state of
Uttarakhand in the northern part of India. Situated in the Garhwal region, it is
236 km north of India’s capital New Delhi & is one of the “Counter
Magnets” of the National Capital Region (NCR) being developed as an
alternative core of growth to help ease the migration & population explosion
in the Delhi metropolitan area. Dehradun is situated in the Doon Valley on
the foothills of the Himalayas nestled between two of India’s mightiest rivers
– the Ganges on the east &
Q11. Brightest planet in our solar system is
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
Ans: (b) Venus.Venus has the highest albedo of any planet in our solar
system. It owes its reflective ability to the fact that it’s blanketed with clouds.
Venus is so bright partly as it reflects over 70 per cent of sunlight striking it.
Sunlight bouncing from these clouds is what makes Venus so bright.
Q12. A high growth rate of population is characterised by
(a) high birth & low death rates
(b) high birth & high death rates
(c) low birth & low death rates
(d) low birth & high death rates
Ans: (a) high birth & low death rates.Population growth is the change in a
population over time, & can be quantified as the change in the number of
individuals of any species in a population using “per unit time” for
measurement. High birth & low death rates add to the population base
considerably as while the base remains intact, the erosion due to deaths is
hampered.Ans: (d).
Q13. Which of the following one of the following is called a red
planet –
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
Ans: (c) Mars.Mars is the 4th planet from the Sun & the 2nd smallest planet
in the Solar System. Mars is a terrestrial planet with a thin atmosphere,
having surface features reminiscent both of the impact craters of the Moon &
the volcanoes, valleys, deserts, & polar ice caps of Earth. Named after the
Roman god of war, it is often described as the “Red Planet”, as the iron oxide
prevalent on its surface gives it a reddish appearance.
Q14. In India, population density is defined as the number of
persons
(a) per lakh square mile
(b) per square mile
(c) per lakh square kilometre
(d) per square kilometre
Ans: (d).. yr 1998) Commonly this may be calculated for a county, city,
country, another territory, or the entire world. The world’s population is 7
billion, & Earth’s total area (including land & water) is 510 million square
kilometers (197 million square miles. According to 2011 census population
density of India is 382.
Q15. Which of the following one of the following planets has no
moon –
(a) Neptune
(b) Mars
(c) Mercury
(d) Pluto
Ans: (c) Mercury.Mercury & Venus are the only two recognized planets in
our solar system without moons. However, there are many, many planets in
the universe & a significant portion of these, if our solar system is assumed
representative of at least a significant portion of the universe’s planetary
systems likely have no moons.
Q16. What is the stage in the population cycle in which India is
classified on the basis of its demographic characteristics –
(a) High stationary stage
(b) Early expanding stage
(c) Late expanding stage
(d) Declining stage
Ans: (c) Late expanding stage.The demographic transition model is a chart
showing the different stages of a country‘s population‘s birth rate & death
rate. India is in stage 2 of the demographic transition model right now with a
high birth rate of 23 per 1000, & a decreasing death rate of 7 per 1000. There
are 5 stages, with each progressively going further into the future. A biproduct
of this, is a high rate of natural increase with India‘s being at 1.5%.
In the late expanding or the 3rd stage of the demographic cycle the birth
tends to fall but the depth rate declines still further & the population
continues to grow as the births exceeds deaths, e.g. India, China, Singapore,
etc.
Q17. The surface temperature of the sun is estimated as
(a) 12000 °C
(b) 6000 °C
(c) 18000 °C
(d) 24000 °C
Ans: (b) 6000 °C.The surface of the sun is called the photosphere. It has dark
spots called sunspots which are the only solar activity observable by the
naked eye. The photosphere is 340 miles thick & it’s temperature s range
from 5,500°C to 6,000°C.
Q18. Match List I with List II & select the true answer using
the codes given below the lists: List-I
A. Assam
B. Dadra & Nagar Haveli
C. Lakshadweep
D. Sikkim
List-II
1. Silvassa
2. Gangtok
3. Dispur
4. Kavaratti
A B CD
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 1 3 2
(d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (a) 3 1 4 2.Silvassa is the capital of the Indian Union Territory of Dadra
& Nagar Haveli. Gangtok is situated in the eastern Himalayan range, at an
altitude of 5,800 feet (1,800 m). Gangtok is the capital & largest town of the
Indian state of Sikkim. Dispur is the capital of Assam, in northeast India.
Dispur has existed as a locality on the outskirts of Guwahati, took its place as
the capital of Assam in 1973. Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Territory
of Lakshadweep in India. Kavaratti is a census town in addition the name of
the atoll upon which the town stands.
Q19. The light from the Sun reaches the Earth in about—
(a) 8 minutes
(b) 8 2nd s
(c) 10 2nd s
(d) 10 minutes
Ans: (a) 8 minutes.Light travels at 186,000 miles a 2nd at the Earth is 93
million miles to Sun on average.33 minutes for light from the Sun to reach
Earth. This works out as 8. On average, it takes energy between 10,000 &
170,000 yrs to leave the sun’s interior & then be emitted from the surface as
light. Sunlight, in the broad sense, is the total frequency spectrum of
electromagnetic radiation given off by the Sun, particularly infrared, visible,
& ultraviolet light. On Earth, sunlight is filtered through the Earth’s
atmosphere, & is obvious as daylight when the Sun is above the horizon.
Q20. As per the latest estimates, the literacy rate (% of
population) in India is
(a) 65%
(b) 63%
(c) 67%
(d) 68%
Explanation: *) Literacy in India is key for socio-economic progress, & the
Indian literacy rate grew to 74. The level is well below the world average
literacy rate of 84%, & India currently has the largest illiterate population of
any nation on earth.04% in 2011 from 12% at the end of British rule in 1947.
The 2011 census, however, indicated a 2001-2011 decadal literacy growth of
9.2%, which is the slower than the growth seen during the previous decade.
There is a wide gender disparity in the literacy rate in India: effective literacy
rates (age 7 & above) in 2011 were 80.9% for men & 64.6% for women. The
census provided a positive indication that growth in female literacy rates
(11.8%) was substantially faster than in male literacy rates (6.9%) in the
2001-2011 decadal period, which means the gender gap seems to be
narrowing.
Q21. The four largest planets of the Solar System in decreasing
size are
(a) Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn & Neptune
(b) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn & Uranus
(c) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus & Neptune
(d) Jupiter, Mercury, Saturn & Neptune
Ans: (c) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus & Neptune.The diameter of Jupiter is
1,42,984 km, Saturn: 1,20,536 km ,Uranus: 51,118 km, & that of Neptune is
49,528 km.
Q22. What percentage of Indian population is below the official
poverty line –
(a) 30% to 35%
(b) Below 30%
(c) Above 35% but below 40%
(d) Between 40% & 45%
Ans: (b) Below 30%.The Planning Commission, in March 2012, released the
latest poverty estimates for the country showing a decline in the incidence of
poverty by 7. 28.3 per cent over the past five yrs & stating that anyone with a
daily consumption expenditure of Rs.35 & Rs. 22.42 in urban & rural areas
respectively is above the poverty line. The all-India Head Count Ratio (HCR)
has declined by 7.3 percentage points from 37.2% in 2004-05 to 29.8% in
2009-10, with rural poverty declining by 8.0 percentage points from 41.8% to
33.8% & urban poverty declining by 4.8 percentage points from 25.7% to
20.9%.
Q23. The largest planet in our solar system is
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Mercury
Ans: (a) Jupiter.Jupiter is the 5th planet from the Sun & is the largest planet
in the solar system. It also contains two & a half times the mass of all the
other planets combined. If Jupiter were hollow, more than one thousand
Earths could fit inside. It has a mass of 1.9 × 1027 kg & is 142,800
kilometers (88,736 miles) across the equator.
Q24. Which of the following State of India has the largest
percentage of poor –
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) Jharkhand
Ans: (b) Bihar.Poverty in India is widespread, with the nation estimated to
have a 3rd of the world’s poor.7% of the total Indian people fall below the
international poverty line of US$ 1. In 2011, World Bank stated, 32.25 per
day (PPP) while 68.7% live on less than US$ 2 per day. Odisha is the state
with the max. proportion of poor at 57.2 percent in 2004-05. Odisha is
followed by Bihar, Madhya Pradesh (MP), Uttar Pradesh (UP) &
Maharashtra, according to data by the Planning Commission of India. While
over half the population in the states of Odisha & Bihar operates below the
poverty line, Madhya Pradesh is just shy of 50 percent.
Q25. Which of the following is the hottest planet in the Solar
System –
(a) Saturn
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Uranus
Ans: (c) Venus.Mercury is closer to the sun, but the atmosphere on Venus
actually makes it hotter. The atmospheric pressure of Venus is also about 90
times greater than that of Earth. Even on the night side, the temperature
doesn’t drop by much (comparatively) as of the carbon dioxide, about 95%,
atmosphere.
Q26. The number of females per 1000 males in India’s
population (Census 2001) is
(a) 929
(b) 900
(c) 933
(d) 945
Ans: (c) 933.As per the 2001 Census, Sex ratio (the number of females per
1000 males) for India was 933 females per 1000 males, which was an
improvement of 6 points over 927 recorded in 1991 Census. Haryana
reported the lowest sex ratio of 861 among the major states. Like the 1991
Census, the highest sex ratio (1058) was reported in Kerala. The number of
females per 1000 males in India’s population (census 2011) is 943.
Q27. Which among the given statements is correct –
(a) Pluto was discoverd by Clyde Tombaugh in 1930
(b) Pluto is not a Planet now
(c) Pluto has been given the number 134340
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d). LDC, DEO & PA/SA Exam, 06.2016 TF No.12. 3441135) Pluto
was discovered by clyde Tombaugh in 1930. According to International
Astronomical Union (IAU) on August 24, 2006 Pluto is considered as dwarf
planet. As per the definition, there are currently eight planets & five dwarf
planets known in the solar system. The five dwarf planets are Pluto, Ceres,
Eris, Make make & Haumea. Pluto has been given number 134340.
Q28. According to India’s Report of 2001 percentage of
population living in rural areas is
(a) 72
(b) 70
(c) 74
(d) 80
Ans: (a) 72.As per the 2001 Census of India, in a total population of 1027
million in India, about 742 million (or 72.8%) lived in urban areas.2%) lived
in rural areas & 285 million (or 27. There had been an increase of 2.1
percentage points in the proportion of urban population in India during 1991-
2001. According to 2011 census, population of rural India is 31.1% & urban
India is 68.9%.
Q29. The Milky Way Galaxy was 1st observed by
(a) Maarten Schmidt
(b) Galileo
(c) Marconi
(d) Newton
Ans: (b) Galileo.The Milky Way is the galaxy that contains our solar system.
Observational evidence for the Milky Way being made up of distant stars 1st
came when Galileo pointed his telescope in the direction of the Milky Way,
observing a big amount of faint stars. This name derives from its appearance
as a dim “milky” glowing band arching across the night sky, in which the
naked eye cannot distinguish individual stars.
Q30. Which of the following one of the following states of India
records the highest sexratio –
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Maghalaya
(d) Tamilnadu
Ans: (b) Kerala.Kerala has the highest sex ratio; while Haryana has the
lowest sex ratio among states & Daman & Diu has the lowest In all states &
territories.
Q31. Among the following, the celestial body farthest from the
Earth is
(a) Uranus
(b) Saturn
(c) Neptune
(d) Pluto
Ans: (c) Neptune.Pluto, formal designation 134340 Pluto, is the 2nd -mostmassive
known dwarf planet in the Solar System (after Eris) & the tenthmost-
massive body observed directly orbiting the Sun. Like other members
of the Kuiper belt, Pluto is composed primarily of rock & ice & is relatively
small, approx. Originally classified as the ninth planet from the Sun, Pluto
was recategorized as a dwarf planet & plutoid owing to the discovery that it
is only one of several big bodies within the Kuiper belt. one-6th the mass of
the Earth’s Moon & one-3rd its volume. It has an eccentric & highly inclined
orbit that takes it from 30 to 49 AU (4.4–7.4 billion km) from the Sun. This
causes Pluto to periodically come closer to the Sun than Neptune. Pluto gets
as close as 4.44 billion km. But its orbit is so elliptical that it gets out to a
distance of 7.38 billion km. In fact, there are times in Pluto’s orbit when
Neptune passes it. Then Neptune really is the farthest planet from the Sun.
Q32. The birthrate measures the number of births during a yr
per
(a) 1000 population
(b) 100 population
(c) 10000 population
(d) 100000 population
Ans: (a) 1000 population.The birth rate is typically the rate of births in a
population over time. The birth rate along with mortality & migration rate are
used to calculate population growth. The rate of births in a population is
calculated in several ways: live births from a universal registration system for
births, deaths, & marriages; population counts from a census, & estimation
through specialized demographic techniques. The crude birth rate is the
number of births per 1,000 people per yr. The total (crude) birth rate (which
includes all births)—typically indicated as births per 1,000 population—is
distinguished from an age-specific rate (the number of births per 1,000
persons in an age group).
Q33. The moon is showing its same face to the earth as
(a) Its rotation & revolution are opposite
(b) It is not rotating about its own axis
(c) Its periods of rotation & revolution are the same
(d) Its rotation is faster than its revolution
Ans: (c) Its periods of rotation & revolution are the same.As it is “tidallylocked”
to the Earth. Imagine a person who walks around a center pole, but
shifts their body so they are always facing it as they walk. The Earth’s gravity
slows down the moon’s rotation, so that it rotates at the same speed as it
revolves around the Earth.
Q34. During which decade did the population of India record a
negative growth rate –
(a) 1911–21
(b) 1921–31
(c) 1941–51
(d) 1931–41
Ans: (a) 1911–21.Negative Population growth rate or decline in population
can refer to the decline in population of humans. It can be used to refer to
long-term demographic trends, as in urban decay or rural flight, but it is also
commonly employed to describe big reductions in population due to violence,
disease, or other catastrophes. It is a term usually used to describe any great
reduction in a human population. During the decade of 1911-1921,
population decreased by 7 lakhs. Epidemics like plague, cholera, malaria &
famines accounted for this decline. Plague epidemic in 1918 took a toll of
140 lakh human lives.
Q35. Which of the following is the coldest among the following
– (
a) Earth
(b) Mars
(c) Pluto
(d) Mercury
Ans: (c) Pluto.Until it lost its planetary status in 2006, Pluto was the coldest
with an estimated surface temperature between -235 & -210 degrees Celsius.
Pluto has always had the ‘honour’ of being the coldest planet with an average
temperature between -360 to – 400 degrees Fahrenheit. But Pluto has now
been relegated the status of a Dwarf Planet. This is as it is so far away from
the sun: it is over 40 times further from the sun than planet Earth. Pluto also
has no internal heat source & it even orbits in a ring of ice debris.
Q36. The most literate union territory in India is
(a) Lakshadweep
(b) Delhi
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Pondicherry
Ans: (a) Lakshadweep.According to India’s census facts 2011, Kerala comes
up as the most literate state in the country with 94. The state of Bihar is the
least literate with 61.0 percentage of literacy rate.8% of literacy rate. As
regards to Union Territories, Lakshadweep shows the highest literacy rate of
91.8%. The least literate Union Territory in India is Dadra & Nagar Haveli
with a literacy rate of 76.2%.
Q37. Which among the given does not belong to the solar
system –
(a) Comets
(b) Asteroids
(c) Planets
(d) Nebulae
Ans: (d).
Q38. Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India is situated in the
State of
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Karnataka
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: (b) Jammu & Kashmir.Jawahar Tunnel or Banihal Tunnel, named after
the 1st Prime Minister of India, was constructed for round-the-yr surface
transport by Mr. Barsel (both were German) between 1954 & 1960. Alfred
Kunz & C. Situated between Banihal & Qazigund, This tunnel facilitates
round-the-yr road connectivity to Srinagar From Jammu.
Q39. The number of staellites of the planet is Mercury is
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) 2
(d) 16
Ans: (b) 0.The nearness of Mercury to the massive gravity influence of the
Sun is the likely reason that no natural satellites are present, although it is
possible that one or more may have existed in the past.
Q40. Diu is an island off
(a) Goa
(b) Daman
(c) Gujarat
(d) Maharashtra
Ans: (c) Gujarat.Diu Island is lying off the south coast of Gujarat’s
Kathiawar peninsula, separated from the mainland by a tidal creek. Diu is
originally a part of union territory of Daman & Diu.
Q41. Which of the following planet is called evening star –
(a) Mercury
(b) Mars
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Ans: (c) Venus.Venus “overtakes” the Earth every 584 days as it orbits the
Sun. As it does so, it changes from the “Evening Star”, visible after sunset, to
the “Morning Star”, visible before sunrise.
Q42. Which among the given states as per-census, has the
highest & lowest sex ratio respectively –
(a) Himachal Pradesh & Punjab
(b) Kerala & Haryana
(c) Meghalaya & Bihar
(d) Tamil Nadu & Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (b) Kerala & Haryana.Like the 1991 Census, the highest sex ratio
(1058) had been reported in Kerala. According to 2011 census, Highest sex
ratio–Kerala (1084) Lowest sex-ratio–Haryana (879). Haryana reported the
lowest sex ratio of 861 among the major states.
Q43. The outermost layer of the Sun is called
(a) Photosphere
(b) Chromosphere
(c) Corona
(d) Lithosphere
Ans: (c) Corona.The outermost layer of the sun is the corona. The white
corona is a million times less bright than the inner layers of the sun, but is
many times larger. Only visible during eclipses, it is a low density cloud of
plasma with higher transparency than the inner layers. A corona is a type of
plasma “atmosphere” of the Sun or other celestial body, extending millions of
kilometers into space, most easily seen during a total solar eclipse, but also
observable in a coronagraph. The word “corona” itself derived from the
Latin, meaning crown. The high temperature of the corona gives it unusual
spectral features
Q44. Census of population in India is done after every
(a) 05 yrs
(b) 10 yrs
(c) 07 yrs
(d) 02 yrs
Ans: (b) 10 yrs.The Indian Census is the most credible source of information
on Demography (Population characteristics), Economic Activity, Literacy &
Education, Housing & Household Amenities, Urbanisation, Fertility &
Mortality, Scheduled Castes & Scheduled Tribes, Language, Religion,
Migration, Disability & many other socio-cultural & demographic data since
1872. The census is a decadal compilation of data about India’s demography
& associated features..
Q45. Which of the following is the 2nd nearest star to the Earth
after the Sun –
(a) Sirius
(b) Vega
(c) Proxima Centauri
(d) Alpha Centauri
Ans: (c) Proxima Centauri.As the nearest star from our Solar System,
Proxima Centauri is a prime candidate for future interstellar travel & space
colonization missions.24 light-yrs distant inside the G-cloud in the
constellation of Centaurus. Proxima Centauri is a red dwarf star about 4. It
was discovered in 1915 by Robert Innes, the Director of the Union
Observatory in South Africa, & is the nearest known star to the Sun, although
it is too faint to be seen with the naked eye. As of the proximity of this star,
its distance from the Sun & angular diameter can be measured directly, from
which it can be determined that its diameter is about one-seventh of that of
the Sun. Proxima Centauri’s mass is about an eighth of the Sun’s, & its
average density is about 40 times that of the Sun.
Q46. Match the following: Sea Ports (A) Bhatkal (B) Alleppey
(C) Kakinada (D) Tuticorin States 1. Kerala 2. Tamil Nadu 3.
Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh ABCD
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (c) 3 1 4 2.Bhatkal, also known as Batecala in some Portuguese
historical texts is a port town in Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka.
Kakinada is a city & a municipal corporation in the Indian state of Andhra
Pradesh. Alappuzha, also known as Alleppey, is a city in Alappuzha District
of Kerala state of southern India. It is also the headquarters of East Godavari
district. Thoothukudi, also known as Tuticorin, is a port city & a Municipal
Corporation in Thoothukudi district of the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.
Q47. Biggest planet of solar system is
(a) Mars
(b) Earth
(c) Saturn
(d) Jupiter
Ans: (d). Jupiter is the biggest planet in our Solar System. It is the largest by
mass, volume, & surface area among other statistics. Here are the critical
measurements of Jupiter in addition a few other interesting facts about the
planet & other bodies in the Jovian system.
Q48. Which of the following is the largest state of India,
population-wise, according to 2001 census –
(a) Bihar
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) West Bengal
Ans: (c) Uttar Pradesh.As per the 2001 Census, Uttar Pradesh continued to be
the most populous state in the country with 16.42 percent) & Bihar (8.17
percent of India’s population followed by Maharashtra (9.07 percent). In fact
the population of Uttar Pradesh (166 million) was more than the estimated
population of Pakistan. According to 2011 census, most population-wise
states are 1. Uttar Pradesh– 19,98,12,341 2. Maharashtra – 11,23,74,333 3.
Bihar – 10,40,99,452 4. West Bengal – 9,12,76,115
Q49. Pulsars are
(a) stars moving away from Earth
(b) stars moving in the direction of the Earth
(c) rapidly spinning stars
(d) high temperature stars
Ans: (c) rapidly spinning stars.The word “pulsar” is a contraction of
“pulsating star. It blasts out in a giant explosion known as a supernova, the
most powerful & violent event in the universe. A pulsar is formed when a
massive star collapses exhausts its supply of fuel. Without the opposing force
of nuclear fusion to balance it, gravity begins to pull the mass of the star
inward until it implodes. In a pulsar, gravity compacts the mass of the star
until it forms an object composed primarily of neutrons packed so tightly that
they no longer exist as normal matter. As the star collapses, it begins to spin
more rapidly in what is known as the conservation of angular momentum.
The process is similar to that of an ice skater pulling their arms in close to
spin faster. What is left behind is a rapidly spinning ball of tightly packed
neutrons inside an iron shell..
Q50. Which among the given is correctly matched –
(a) Arunachal Pradesh – Guwahati
(b) Assam – Itanagar
(c) Tripura – Agartala
(d) Nagaland – Shillong (FCI Assistant Grade-III Exam. 5.02.2013
(Paper-1)
Ans: (c) Tripura – Agartala.Agartala is the capital of the Indian state of
Tripura & is the 2nd -largest city in North-east India after Guwahati in terms
of municipal area in addition population. It lies on the bank of Haroa River &
is situated 2 km from Bangladesh. It is located in North-east India. Agartala
has temples & palaces. As per 2011 census, Population of Agartala city has
exceeded 5,12,000. Agartala has a monsoon influenced humid subtropical
climate with big amounts of rain almost all yr. The city experiences long, hot
& wet summers, lasting from April to October.
Antonyms, as it sounds, means the words having opposite (Anti) meanings like good – bad etc. these words are asked in the defense competitive exams and can be scoring part of the English section if you have sufficient knowledge of the exam. Exams like CDS, NDA can either ask the questions directly or indirectly using certain sentences to provide hints. While AFCAT and T.A. exams ask directly.
There is a vast count of these words to practice but below are some of the selected antonyms asked in defense qualifying exam that will lead the candidates to the pattern of this type of question.
100 Antonym For CDS NDA AFCAT
Agony – Ecstasy
Ambivalent- Plain
Averse – Eager
Assuage – Worsen
Adroit – Clumsy
Austere – Lavish
Bridle – Vent
Benign – Malicious
Belittle – Extol
Bleak – Bright
Congenial – Disagreeable
Commend – Dislike/ Criticise
Collision – Conciliatory
Chide – Praise
Conform – Differ
Ductile – Rigid
Enslave – Emancipate
Ephemeral – Eternal
Enigmatic – Simple
Essential – Trivial
Evince – Hide
Fiasco – Success
Frugal – Extravagant
Futile – Worthy
Frail – Strong
Gumption – Apathy
Glower – Smile
Gambol – Trudge
Haste – Delay
Heretical – Orthodox
Hindrance – Aid
Haughty – Humble
Infuriate – Soothe
Impudent – Humble
Insipid – Tasty/ Exciting
Impasse – Break Through
Jubilant – Gloomy
Kind – Cruel
Levity – Seriousness
Lucidity – Confused
Lapidarian – Inelegant
Loathe – Love
Lachrymose – Blithe
Meagre – Plentiful
Maladroit – Skilled
Mammoth – Small
Morbid – Appealing
Mutational – Crepuscular
Munificent – Greedy
Novice – Veteran
Nadir – Zenith
Nepotism – Impartiality
Nominal – Exorbitant
Nonchalant – Worried
Oblivious – Mindful
Overt – Hidden
Onerous – Easy
Obscene – Decent
Ostentations – Unpretentious
Obstinate – Flexible
Panic – Calm
Plausible – Unconvincing
Parochial – Global
Prudent – Unwise
Precise – Vague
Podgy – Thin
Ratify – Disapprove
Reticent – Frank
Reproach – Praise
Rancour – Accord
Rudimentary – Advanced
Subsequent – Prior
Sartorial – Cheerful
Servility – Insolence
Spurious – Genuine
Scorn – Administration
Sagacity – Stupidity
Truculent – Gentle
Taint – Purify
Terse – Detailed
Taciturn – Loquacious
Timid – Bold
Tenuous – Abundant
Urbane – Rude
Verity – Falsehood
Valiant – Coward
Venerate – Criticise
Virtue – Vice
Vituperative – Laudatory
Verbose – Concise
Welter – Order
Waive – Retain
Wastrel – Miser
Wanton – Merciful
Yearn – Content
Yawn – Brisk
Yoke – Detach
Zeal – Apathy
Zest – Disgust
Zealot – Torrent
Conclusion – These words are hint providing words to let you track the way to judge the level of words asked and making your strategy for your respective exam. These questions can be a good scoring point if you have a good hold over them, but can be a blank part of your paper if you don’t have any knowledge around them. So, start learning 5-10 such words daily to bring a good hold over antonyms.
The defense commutative/qualifying exams basically have the exam pattern divided into 3 (CDS, NDA) or 4 (AFCAT, T.A.) sections. Where English, G.S. and maths are compulsory in most of them. Maths is all about practice and G.S need deep knowledge. While English is a hurdle for many students. But there are some places in English where the candidates can score well. One of them is synonyms and antonyms.
Synonyms (matches with SAME) mean the words having a similar meaning; while Antonyms (matches with ANTI) have opposite meaning. Below are some synonyms that will help the aspirants in scoring more in the exams.
100 Synonyms For CDS NDA AFCAT
Abhor – Hate
Annihilate – Destroy
Affectation – Artificiality
Acumen – Cleverness
Admonish – Censured
Aplomb – Poise
Baffle – Foiled
Benevolence – Kindness
Bashful – Timid, Shy
Banish – Exile
Ceremonial – Formal
Clemency – Mercy, Forgiveness
Colossal – Enormous
Contentious – Quarrelsome
Contemplation – Meditation
Delineate – Explain
Dilate – Widen
Dulcet – Sweet
Decimated – Destroyed
Dubious – Doubtful
Estranged – Separated
Elude – Escape
Enliven – Cheer
Eternal – Perpetual
Exotic – Strange
Flair – Talent
Forego – Leave
Flimsy – Weak
Flaunt – Exhibit
Genesis – Origin
Grandeur – Magnificent
Grapple – Struggle
Gratify – Pacify
Haughty – Arrogant
Hail – Welcome
Horde – Mob
Heed – Consider
Industrious – Diligent
Infructuous – Fruitless
Irreverence – Disrespect
Incessantly – Continuously
Jeopardy – Danger
Jejune – Uninteresting
Jabber – Chatter
Jubilant – Rejoicing
Ken – Knowledge
Kin – Relatives
Knavish – Dishonest
Laud – Praise
Lucid – Clear
Lull – Pause
Latent – Concealed/ Hidden
Lethargy – Laziness
Mellow – Smooth/Soft
Maestro – Genius
Meticulous – Careful/ Precise
Maverick – Rebel
Meddle – Interfere
Novice – Beginner
Noxious – Harmful
Nexus – Connection
Negligent – Careless
Obsolete – Outdate
Oblique – Neglect
Occult – Supernatural
Obfuscate – Confuse
Plump – Fat
Penchant – Liking
Peculiar – Strange
Pallid – Pale
Plebiscite – Referendum
Quarantine – Isolation
Quiver – Tremble
Opulent – Rich
Quarry – Victim
Querulous – Complaining
Rampant – Widespread
Reverie – Daydream
Respite – Relief
Resurgence – Renewal
Relish – Enjoy
Requite – Repay
Supplant – Replace
Sporadic – Scattered
Sundry – Various
Sham – Fake
Tenet – Belief
Tramp – Wanderer
Tranquil – Peaceful
Urbane – Refined
Upright – Honourable
Veritable – Authentic
Vilify – Defame
Venal – Corrupt
Wrath – Anger
Winnow – Weed
Wholesome – Sound
Witty – Humorous
Yearn – To Crave
Zany – Clown
Conclusion – These synonyms are crucial for the exams and will give you the hint of the type of synonyms that the aspirants will face in the exams. The English section of the Defense qualifying exams has these type of questions either asked directly or indirectly by giving the hint of the word using a sentence. The candidates have to practice more for it and raise your score.
On the basis of the result of the written part of the National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I) 2017 held by the Union Public Service Commission on 23rd April 2017, candidates with the under mentioned Roll Nos. have qualified forInterview by the Services Selection Board of the Ministry of Defence for Admission to Army, Navy and Air Force Wings of the National Defence Academy for the 139th Course and for the 101st Indian Naval Academy Course (INAC) commencing from 2nd January,
2018.
The candidature of all the candidates, whose Roll Nos. are shown in the list, is provisional. In accordance with the conditions of their admission to the examination,“candidates are requested to register themselves online on the Indian Army Recruiting website joinindianarmy.nic.in within two weeks of announcement of written result. The successful candidates would then be allotted Selection Centres and dates, of SSB interview which shall be communicated on the registered e-mail ID. Any candidate who has already registered earlier on the site will not be required to do so. In case of any query/Login problem, e-mail is forwarded to [email protected].”
“Candidates are also requested to submit original certificates of Age and Educational Qualification to respective Service Selection Boards (SSBs) during the SSB interview.” The candidates must not send the Original Certificates to the Union Public Service Commission. For any further information, the candidates may contact Facilitation Counter near Gate “C” of the Commission, either in person or on telephone numbers 011-23385271/011-23381125 / 011-23098543 between 10:00 hrs and 17:00 hours on any working day. The result is also available at Union Public Service Commission’s Website http://www.upsc.gov.in .
The mark-sheets of the candidates, will be put on the Commission’s website within fifteen (15) days from the date of publication of the final result (after concluding SSB Interviews) and will remain available on the website for a period of thirty (30)) days.
